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Physics for Competitive Exams

Contents

1: Units and Measurements

Chapter 1 Score: 0 / 20

1.1 Introduction

Physics is a quantitative science. Every physical quantity is measured in terms of a standard unit. A complete measurement consists of a numerical value and a unit.

1.2 Types of Units

Fundamental Units

These are independent units. There are seven fundamental units in the SI system:

QuantityUnitSymbol
Lengthmetrem
Masskilogramkg
Timeseconds
Electric CurrentampereA
TemperaturekelvinK
Amount of Substancemolemol
Luminous Intensitycandelacd

Derived Units

Units obtained by combining fundamental units.

1.3 Dimensional Analysis

Every physical quantity can be expressed in terms of fundamental dimensions: [M], [L], [T], [A], [K], [mol], [cd].

1.4 Significant Figures & Errors

Significant Figures:


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The dimensional formula of torque is the same as that of:

(a) Work
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Impulse
(d) Power

Q2. Number of significant figures in 0.0003400 is:

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Q3. The number of significant figures in 2.50 × 10³ is:

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Q4. In the number 0.0700, how many significant figures are there?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Q5. The result of 12.34 + 2.5 should be reported as:

(a) 14.84
(b) 14.8
(c) 15
(d) 14.9

Q6. Dimensional formula of Planck’s constant is:

(a) [MLT⁻¹]
(b) [ML²T⁻¹]
(c) [ML²T⁻²]
(d) [M⁰L²T⁻¹]

Q7. Which of the following has same dimensions as impulse?

(a) Energy
(b) Power
(c) Momentum
(d) Pressure

Q8. If unit of mass is doubled and unit of time is halved, the unit of power becomes:

(a) 4 times
(b) 8 times
(c) 16 times
(d) 32 times

Q9. The unit of magnetic permeability μ₀ is:

(a) N A⁻²
(b) N m A⁻²
(c) N m⁻¹ A⁻²
(d) N m A⁻¹

Q10. Which of the following quantities is dimensionless?

(a) Strain
(b) Angle (radian)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Q11. Dimensional formula of ε₀ (permittivity of free space) is:

(a) [M⁻¹L⁻³T⁴A²]
(b) [M⁻¹L⁻³T³A²]
(c) [ML³T⁻⁴A⁻²]
(d) [M⁻¹L³T⁻²A⁻²]

Q12. If F, V and T are taken as fundamental units, then dimensional formula of mass is:

(a) [F V⁻¹ T]
(b) [F V T⁻¹]
(c) [F V⁻¹ T⁻¹]
(d) [F V T]

Q13. If mass is doubled and velocity is halved, kinetic energy becomes:

(a) 2 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 8 times
(d) 1/2 times

Q14. Which of the following pairs have the same dimensions?

(a) Force and Power
(b) Pressure and Stress
(c) Both (b) and (d)
(d) Work and Energy

Q15. In error analysis, for Z = A ²B, the relative error is:

(a) ΔA/A + ΔB/B
(b) 2(ΔA/A) + ΔB/B
(c) 2(ΔA/A – ΔB/B)
(d) ΔA/A + 2ΔB/B

Q16. Which has dimensional formula [M⁰L⁰T⁻¹]?

(a) Angular velocity
(b) Frequency
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q17. The quantity which has same dimensions as that of √(P/ρ) is:

(a) Energy/Mass
(b) Energy/Volume
(c) Velocity
(d) Acceleration

Q18. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity?

(a) Relative density
(b) Refractive index
(c) Poisson’s ratio
(d) All of these

Q19. The dimensional formula of angular momentum is:

(a) [ML²T⁻²]
(b) [ML²T⁻¹]
(c) [MLT⁻¹]
(d) [ML²T⁻³]

Q20. The unit of gravitational constant G is:

(a) N m² kg⁻¹
(b) N m kg⁻²
(c) N m² kg⁻²
(d) N m⁻² kg⁻²

2: Kinematics

Chapter 2 Score: 0 / 20

2.1 Introduction

Kinematics is the branch of physics that describes the motion of objects without considering the forces causing the motion.

2.2 Distance and Displacement

Distance: Total path length (scalar)
Displacement: Shortest straight line distance from initial to final position (vector, can be zero)

2.3 Speed and Velocity

Speed = Distance/Time (scalar)
Velocity = Displacement/Time (vector)

2.4 Acceleration

Acceleration = Change in velocity / Time
a = (v – u)/t

2.5 Equations of Motion (Uniform Acceleration)

v = u + at
s = ut + ½at²
v² = u² + 2as

2.6 Motion under Gravity

For downward motion: a = +g = +9.8 m/s²
For upward motion: a = –g

2.7 Projectile Motion

Horizontal velocity remains constant (aₓ = 0)
Time of flight: T = (2u sinθ)/g
Maximum height: H = (u² sin²θ)/(2g)
Horizontal range: R = (u² sin2θ)/g (Maximum at θ = 45°)

2.8 Relative Velocity

Velocity of A w.r.t. B = v_A – v_B


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. A particle moves with uniform velocity. Its acceleration is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Variable

Q2. The slope of velocity-time graph gives:

(a) Displacement
(b) Acceleration
(c) Velocity
(d) Distance

Q3. A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u. The maximum height reached is:

(a) u²/2g
(b) u²/g
(c) 2u²/g
(d) u²/4g

Q4. Time of flight for a projectile projected with velocity u at angle θ is:

(a) u sinθ / g
(b) 2u sinθ / g
(c) u cosθ / g
(d) 2u cosθ / g

Q5. The horizontal range of a projectile is maximum when angle of projection is:

(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°

Q6. A stone is dropped from a height h. It takes time t to reach ground. If it is dropped from height 4h, time taken will be:

(a) t
(b) 2t
(c) 4t
(d) t/2

Q7. The area under velocity-time graph represents:

(a) Acceleration
(b) Displacement
(c) Force
(d) Power

Q8. A car moving with uniform acceleration covers 100 m in 5 s. If initial velocity is 10 m/s, acceleration is:

(a) 4 m/s²
(b) 8 m/s²
(c) 2 m/s²
(d) 6 m/s²

Q9. For a projectile, the ratio of maximum height to range is:

(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 2 : 1

Q10. A particle is moving with constant speed in a circle. Its acceleration is:

(a) Zero
(b) Tangential
(c) Centripetal
(d) Both tangential and centripetal

Q11. The slope of displacement-time graph gives:

(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Force
(d) Momentum

Q12. A ball is thrown upward with velocity 20 m/s. Time to reach highest point is (g=10 m/s²):

(a) 1 s
(b) 2 s
(c) 4 s
(d) 5 s

Q13. In projectile motion, the horizontal component of velocity:

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases

Q14. The equation of motion v = u + at is applicable for:

(a) Uniform motion
(b) Uniform acceleration
(c) Non-uniform acceleration
(d) All motions

Q15. A body covers 200 m in 10 s with uniform acceleration. Initial velocity is 5 m/s. Final velocity is:

(a) 35 m/s
(b) 25 m/s
(c) 15 m/s
(d) 45 m/s

Q16. The path of a projectile is:

(a) Straight line
(b) Parabola
(c) Circle
(d) Hyperbola

Q17. If a body is projected vertically upward, its velocity at highest point is:

(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum but not zero
(c) Zero
(d) Negative

Q18. The unit of acceleration is:

(a) m/s
(b) m/s²
(c) m²/s
(d) m/s³

Q19. A train moving with uniform acceleration has velocity 10 m/s at one point and 20 m/s after 5 s. Distance covered in 5 s is:

(a) 75 m
(b) 100 m
(c) 125 m
(d) 150 m

Q20. The area under acceleration-time graph gives:

(a) Velocity
(b) Displacement
(c) Change in velocity
(d) Force

3: Laws of Motion

Chapter 3 Score: 0 / 20

3.1 Introduction

Laws of Motion, given by Sir Isaac Newton, form the foundation of classical mechanics. They explain the relationship between force, mass, and motion.

3.2 Newton’s First Law (Law of Inertia)

An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion continues in uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external unbalanced force.

3.3 Newton’s Second Law

The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the applied force and takes place in the direction of the force.

F = ma
Unit of force: Newton (N) = kg m s⁻²

Momentum (p) = mv
Impulse = F × Δt = Change in momentum

3.4 Newton’s Third Law

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Action and reaction act on different bodies.

3.5 Conservation of Momentum

In an isolated system (no external force), total momentum remains constant.
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂

3.6 Friction

Static friction (fₛ) ≤ μₛ N
Kinetic friction (fₖ) = μₖ N

3.7 Circular Motion

Centripetal Force: F = mv² / r

Banking of Roads (without friction):
tan θ = v² / (r g)


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. Newton’s first law is also known as:

(a) Law of inertia
(b) Law of acceleration
(c) Law of action-reaction
(d) Law of gravitation

Q2. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with velocity 10 m/s. Force required to stop it in 2 s is:

(a) 25 N
(b) 50 N
(c) 10 N
(d) 100 N

Q3. Action and reaction forces act on:

(a) Same body
(b) Different bodies
(c) Either same or different
(d) None

Q4. The law of conservation of momentum is a consequence of:

(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(d) All laws

Q5. A 10 kg body is acted upon by a force of 20 N. Acceleration produced is:

(a) 0.5 m/s²
(b) 2 m/s²
(c) 10 m/s²
(d) 200 m/s

Q6. The unit of impulse is:

(a) N
(b) kg m/s
(c) J
(d) W

Q7. A body of mass m is moving with velocity v. Its momentum is:

(a) mv
(b) ½ mv²
(c) m/v
(d) mv²

Q8. When a force is applied on a body, it can change:

(a) Only speed
(b) Only direction
(c) Both speed and direction
(d) None

Q9. A rocket works on the principle of:

(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(d) Conservation of energy

Q10. The frictional force is maximum when the body is:

(a) Moving
(b) At rest
(c) About to move
(d) All same

Q11. Coefficient of friction is:

(a) Dimensionless
(b) Has unit of force
(c) Has unit of acceleration
(d) Has unit of velocity

Q12. A 5 kg block is on a horizontal surface. If μ = 0.4, limiting friction is (g=10 m/s²):

(a) 10 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 30 N
(d) 40 N

Q13. Inertia is a measure of:

(a) Mass
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
(d) Force

Q14. A body of mass 2 kg is acted upon by two forces of 4 N and 6 N in opposite directions. Acceleration is:

(a) 1 m/s²
(b) 5 m/s²
(c) 2 m/s²
(d) 10 m/s²

Q15. The force required to keep a body moving with constant velocity on a horizontal surface is equal to:

(a) Weight
(b) Normal force
(c) Kinetic friction
(d) Static friction

Q16. A gun of mass 10 kg fires a bullet of mass 0.01 kg with velocity 400 m/s. Recoil velocity of gun is:

(a) 0.4 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 40 m/s
(d) 0.04 m/s

Q17. The unit of force in SI system is:

(a) Dyne
(b) Newton
(c) kg wt
(d) Pound

Q18. A 100 kg man stands on a weighing scale in a lift accelerating upward at 2 m/s². Reading of scale is (g=10 m/s²):

(a) 800 N
(b) 1000 N
(c) 1200 N
(d) 1400 N

Q19. Which of the following is a self-adjusting force?

(a) Gravitational force
(b) Electrostatic force
(c) Frictional force
(d) Magnetic force

Q20. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is moving with velocity 10 m/s. Force required to stop it in 0.1 s is:

(a) 50 N
(b) 100 N
(c) 25 N
(d) 200 N

4: Work, Energy and Power

Chapter 4 Score: 0 / 20

4.1 Introduction

Work, Energy and Power are interrelated concepts. Work is done when a force produces displacement. Energy is the capacity to do work. Power is the rate of doing work.

4.2 Work

Work done by a constant force:
W = F · s = F s cosθ (Scalar quantity, unit: Joule)

Work done by variable force = Area under F-s graph.

4.3 Energy

Kinetic Energy (K): K = ½ m v²

Potential Energy (U):

Mechanical Energy = KE + PE

4.4 Work-Energy Theorem

Wnet = ΔK = ½ m v² – ½ m u²

4.5 Conservation of Mechanical Energy

K₁ + U₁ = K₂ + U₂ (in absence of non-conservative forces)

4.6 Power

P = F · v = Work/Time, Unit: Watt (J/s)

4.7 Collisions

Elastic: Momentum & KE conserved
Inelastic: Momentum conserved, KE not conserved


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. Work done by a force is maximum when angle between force and displacement is:

(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) 45°

Q2. The unit of work is:

(a) Newton
(b) Joule
(c) Watt
(d) Pascal

Q3. Kinetic energy of a body depends on:

(a) Mass only
(b) Velocity only
(c) Both mass and velocity
(d) Height

Q4. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity 10 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:

(a) 100 J
(b) 200 J
(c) 50 J
(d) 20 J

Q5. Work done in lifting a 10 kg mass to a height of 5 m is (g=10 m/s²):

(a) 100 J
(b) 200 J
(c) 500 J
(d) 50 J

Q6. The work done by gravity on a body moving horizontally is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q7. Potential energy of a body is maximum when:

(a) It is at rest
(b) It is at the highest point
(c) It is moving with maximum speed
(d) It is falling freely

Q8. The work-energy theorem states that work done by net force equals:

(a) Change in potential energy
(b) Change in kinetic energy
(c) Change in total energy
(d) Change in momentum

Q9. Power is measured in:

(a) Joule
(b) Watt
(c) Newton
(d) Pascal

Q10. A machine does 1000 J of work in 10 s. Its power is:

(a) 10 W
(b) 100 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 10000 W

Q11. The elastic potential energy stored in a spring is:

(a) ½ k x
(b) ½ k x²
(c) k x²
(d) 2 k x²

Q12. A 2 kg body falls from 10 m height. Its kinetic energy just before hitting ground is (g=10 m/s²):

(a) 100 J
(b) 200 J
(c) 50 J
(d) 20 J

Q13. The work done in stretching a spring by 10 cm is 2 J. Spring constant k is:

(a) 400 N/m
(b) 200 N/m
(c) 100 N/m
(d) 800 N/m

Q14. A body is moving with constant velocity. The work done by net force is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q15. The SI unit of power is:

(a) Joule
(b) Newton
(c) Watt
(d) Pascal

Q16. For a freely falling body, total mechanical energy:

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases

Q17. The work done in moving a charge in an electric field is maximum when angle between force and displacement is:

(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) 45°

Q18. A pump lifts 100 kg of water to a height of 10 m in 20 s. Its power is (g=10 m/s²):

(a) 50 W
(b) 100 W
(c) 500 W
(d) 1000 W

Q19. The slope of potential energy vs displacement graph gives:

(a) Force
(b) Power
(c) Work
(d) Acceleration

Q20. A spring is stretched by 5 cm. If its spring constant is 200 N/m, potential energy stored is:

(a) 0.25 J
(b) 0.5 J
(c) 1 J
(d) 2 J

5: System of Particles and Rotational Motion

Chapter 5 Score: 0 / 20

5.1 Introduction

This chapter deals with extended bodies, centre of mass, and rotational motion.

5.2 Centre of Mass (COM)

For a system of particles:
Xcm = (m₁x₁ + m₂x₂ + ...)/M
Ycm = (m₁y₁ + m₂y₂ + ...)/M

COM of uniform rod is at mid-point, uniform disc/ring at centre.

5.3 Linear Momentum of System

Total linear momentum = M × Vcm
If no external force, total momentum is conserved.

5.4 Moment of Inertia (I)

I = Σmr² (about axis)
For ring (about central axis): MR²
For disc (about central axis): ½MR ²
For rod (about centre, perpendicular): ML²/12

5.5 Torque (τ)

τ = r × F = r F sinθ
τ = Iα (analogous to F = ma)

5.6 Angular Momentum (L)

L = Iω
τ = dL/dt
In absence of external torque, angular momentum is conserved.

5.7 Rotational Kinetic Energy

KE = ½ Iω²

5.8 Rolling Motion

v = rω
Total KE = ½mv² + ½Iω²


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. Centre of mass of a uniform rod of length L lies at:

(a) At one end
(b) At L/2 from one end
(c) At L/4 from one end
(d) At 3L/4 from one end

Q2. Moment of inertia of a thin ring about its central axis is:

(a) MR²
(b) ½MR ²
(c) MR²/4
(d) 2MR²

Q3. Torque is analogous to which linear quantity?

(a) Force
(b) Momentum
(c) Velocity
(d) Acceleration

Q4. Angular momentum of a system is conserved when:

(a) External force is zero
(b) External torque is zero
(c) Both external force and torque are zero
(d) Linear momentum is conserved

Q5. Moment of inertia of a solid disc about its diameter is:

(a) MR²
(b) ½MR²
(c) MR²/4
(d) 2MR²

Q6. For a system of particles, if no external force acts, then velocity of centre of mass:

(a) Is zero
(b) Remains constant
(c) Increases
(d) Decreases

Q7. Rotational kinetic energy of a body is given by:

(a) ½mv²
(b) ½Iω²
(c) ½mvω
(d) Iω

Q8. The physical quantity analogous to mass in rotational motion is:

(a) Torque
(b) Angular velocity
(c) Moment of inertia
(d) Angular momentum

Q9. For pure rolling without slipping, the relation is:

(a) v = rω
(b) v = 2rω
(c) v = ω/r
(d) v = ω

Q10. SI unit of angular momentum is:

(a) Nm
(b) kg m²/s
(c) J
(d) W

Q11. If net external torque on a system is zero, then:

(a) Angular velocity is zero
(b) Angular momentum is conserved
(c) Linear momentum is zero
(d) Moment of inertia is constant

Q12. Moment of inertia of a hollow sphere about its diameter is:

(a) ½MR²
(b) 2/3MR²
(c) 2/5MR²
(d) MR²

Q13. A body is rotating with constant angular velocity. Its angular acceleration is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Variable

Q14. The relation between linear velocity and angular velocity is:

(a) v = rω
(b) v = ω/r
(c) v = 2rω
(d) v = ω

Q15. If a body is rotating about an axis, the torque required to stop it in time t is proportional to:

(a) Angular velocity
(b) Moment of inertia
(c) Both angular velocity and moment of inertia
(d) None

Q16. For a system in equilibrium, the net torque about any point is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q17. The moment of inertia is maximum for:

(a) Solid sphere
(b) Hollow sphere
(c) Disc
(d) Ring

Q18. A wheel is rotating with angular velocity ω. If its moment of inertia is doubled and angular velocity is halved, angular momentum becomes:

(a) Same
(b) Double
(c) Half
(d) Four times

Q19. The unit of torque is:

(a) Nm
(b) J
(c) kg m/s
(d) Watt

Q20. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same mass and radius are rolling down an inclined plane. Which one reaches the bottom first?

(a) Solid sphere
(b) Hollow sphere
(c) Both reach at same time
(d) Depends on inclination

6: Gravitation

Chapter 6 Score: 0 / 20

6.1 Introduction

Gravitation is the universal force of attraction between any two bodies in the universe. It is the weakest fundamental force but has the longest range.

6.2 Universal Law of Gravitation

Every body in the universe attracts every other body with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centres.

F = G m₁m₂ / r²
G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N m² kg⁻² (Universal Gravitational Constant)

6.3 Acceleration due to Gravity (g)

g = G M / R²
Value on Earth ≈ 9.8 m/s²

g decreases with height and depth. Value at poles > equator.

6.4 Gravitational Potential Energy

U = – G M m / r

Gravitational potential = – G M / r

6.5 Escape Velocity

vₑ = √(2GM/R) = √(2gR) ≈ 11.2 km/s (for Earth)

Escape velocity is independent of the mass of the body.

6.6 Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion

1. Law of Orbits: Planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one focus.
2. Law of Areas: Areal velocity is constant.
3. Law of Periods: T² ∝ a³ (square of time period is proportional to cube of semi-major axis)

6.7 Satellite Motion

Orbital velocity = √(GM/r)
Time period T = 2π √(r³/GM)
Geostationary satellites have T = 24 hours.


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The value of universal gravitational constant G is:

(a) 9.8 m/s²
(b) 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N m² kg⁻²
(c) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
(d) 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

Q2. Acceleration due to gravity is maximum at:

(a) Poles
(b) Equator
(c) Centre of Earth
(d) Same everywhere

Q3. Escape velocity from the surface of Earth is approximately:

(a) 7.9 km/s
(b) 11.2 km/s
(c) 9.8 km/s
(d) 3 × 10⁵ km/s

Q4. Gravitational force is:

(a) Repulsive
(b) Contact force
(c) Both attractive and repulsive
(d) Always attractive

Q5. Kepler’s second law is based on conservation of:

(a) Energy
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Linear momentum
(d) Mass

Q6. The time period of a geostationary satellite is:

(a) 12 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 365 days

Q7. Gravitational potential energy of a body is:

(a) Always positive
(b) Always negative
(c) Zero at infinity
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q8. The orbital velocity of a satellite close to Earth is:

(a) 11.2 km/s
(b) 7.9 km/s
(c) 3 km/s
(d) 9.8 km/s

Q9. g is maximum at:

(a) Poles
(b) Equator
(c) Mount Everest
(d) Same everywhere

Q10. The value of g at the centre of Earth is:

(a) 9.8 m/s²
(b) 4.9 m/s²
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q11. Kepler’s third law states that:

(a) T² ∝ r
(b) T² ∝ 1/r
(c) T ² ∝ r³
(d) T ∝ r²

Q12. The escape velocity is independent of:

(a) Mass of planet
(b) Radius of planet
(c) Mass of the body
(d) G

Q13. The gravitational force between two bodies is F. If the distance between them is doubled, the force becomes:

(a) 2F
(b) F/2
(c) F/4
(d) 4F

Q14. The value of g decreases with:

(a) Increase in mass of body
(b) Decrease in mass of body
(c) Increase in altitude
(d) Both (c) and depth

Q15. A satellite is revolving close to Earth. Its orbital velocity is nearly:

(a) 11.2 km/s
(b) 7.9 km/s
(c) 3 km/s
(d) 9.8 km/s

Q16. The gravitational potential at a point is:

(a) Always positive
(b) Always negative
(c) Zero at infinity
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q17. The force of attraction between two bodies is F. If the mass of one body is doubled and distance is halved, the new force is:

(a) 2F
(b) 4F
(c) 8F
(d) 16F

Q18. The time period of a satellite orbiting close to Earth is:

(a) 24 hours
(b) 84 minutes
(c) 365 days
(d) 12 hours

Q19. The dimensional formula of G is:

(a) [M⁻¹L³T⁻²]
(b) [M L³ T⁻²]
(c) [M⁻¹ L² T⁻²]
(d) [M L² T⁻²]

Q20. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same mass and radius roll down an inclined plane. Which one reaches the bottom first?

(a) Solid sphere
(b) Hollow sphere
(c) Both at same time
(d) Depends on angle of incline

7: Properties of Bulk Matter

Chapter 7 Score: 0 / 20

7.1 Introduction

This chapter deals with the behaviour of matter in bulk (solids, liquids, gases) under various conditions such as pressure, temperature, and force. It includes elasticity, surface tension, viscosity, and fluid mechanics.

7.2 Elasticity

Property of a material to regain its original shape and size after removal of deforming force.

Stress = Force / Area (unit: N/m²)
Strain = Change in dimension / Original dimension (dimensionless)

Hooke’s Law: Within elastic limit, stress ∝ strain

Modulus of Elasticity = Stress / Strain

Poisson’s Ratio (σ) = Lateral strain / Longitudinal strain (0.2 to 0.4)

Elastic Potential Energy = ½ × Stress × Strain × Volume

7.3 Pressure

Pressure in a fluid = ρ g h

Pascal’s Law: Pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished.

7.4 Surface Tension

Surface Tension (S) = Force / Length = Energy / Area

Capillary rise: h = 2 S cosθ / (ρ g r)
Excess pressure in liquid drop: 2S / r
Excess pressure in soap bubble: 4S / r

7.5 Viscosity & Fluid Flow

Stokes’ law: F = 6πη r v
Bernoulli’s principle: P + ρgh + ½ρv ² = constant


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The SI unit of Young’s modulus is:

(a) N/m
(b) N/m²
(c) N m
(d) dimensionless

Q2. The property of a material to regain its original shape after removal of deforming force is called:

(a) Plasticity
(b) Elasticity
(c) Rigidity
(d) Viscosity

Q3. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called:

(a) Young’s modulus
(b) Bulk modulus
(c) Poisson’s ratio
(d) Shear modulus

Q4. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is:

(a) 2S/r
(b) 4S/r
(c) S/r
(d) 8S/r

Q5. The terminal velocity of a spherical body is proportional to:

(a) Radius
(b) Square of radius
(c) Cube of radius
(d) Inverse of radius

Q6. The SI unit of surface tension is:

(a) N/m
(b) N/m²
(c) J/m
(d) J/m ²

Q7. Bernoulli’s principle is based on:

(a) Conservation of mass
(b) Conservation of energy
(c) Conservation of momentum
(d) All of the above

Q8. The viscous force on a spherical body is given by:

(a) Stokes’ law
(b) Bernoulli’s principle
(c) Pascal’s law
(d) Hooke’s law

Q9. The capillary rise is maximum in a tube of:

(a) Larger radius
(b) Smaller radius
(c) Medium radius
(d) Independent of radius

Q10. The bulk modulus of elasticity is defined as:

(a) Stress / strain
(b) Volumetric stress / volumetric strain
(c) Shearing stress / shearing strain
(d) Longitudinal stress / longitudinal strain

Q11. The angle of contact for water and glass is:

(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) 45°

Q12. The velocity of efflux from an orifice at depth h below the free surface is:

(a) √(2gh)
(b) √(gh)
(c) 2√(gh)
(d) gh

Q13. The coefficient of viscosity has unit:

(a) N s m⁻²
(b) N/m
(c) N/m²
(d) kg m/s

Q14. A liquid rises in a capillary tube. The height of rise is maximum when the angle of contact is:

(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) 45°

Q15. The excess pressure inside a liquid drop of radius r is:

(a) 2S/r
(b) 4S/r
(c) S/r
(d) 8S/r

Q16. The Reynold’s number for streamline flow is:

(a) Less than 2000
(b) Greater than 3000
(c) Between 2000 and 3000
(d) Any value

Q17. The potential energy stored in a stretched wire is:

(a) ½ × stress × strain × volume
(b) Stress × strain × volume
(c) ½ × stress × volume
(d) Strain × volume

Q18. The viscosity of liquids:

(a) Increases with temperature
(b) Decreases with temperature
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases

Q19. The height of capillary rise is inversely proportional to:

(a) Surface tension
(b) Radius of capillary
(c) Density of liquid
(d) Acceleration due to gravity

Q20. In Bernoulli’s equation, the term ρgh represents:

(a) Pressure energy
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Potential energy per unit volume
(d) Total energy

8: Thermodynamics

Chapter 8 Score: 0 / 20

8.1 Introduction

Thermodynamics deals with the study of heat, work, and energy transformation in systems. It is governed by four fundamental laws.

8.2 Thermal Equilibrium & Zeroth Law

If two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other. This defines temperature.

8.3 First Law of Thermodynamics

Energy is conserved. Heat supplied to a system is used to increase its internal energy and to do work.

ΔU = Q – W (First law is the law of conservation of energy)

8.4 Specific Heat & Latent Heat

Specific heat capacity (c): Q = m c ΔT

Molar specific heat: Cₚ = Cᵥ + R (ideal gas)

Latent Heat: Heat required to change state without temperature change.

8.5 Thermodynamic Processes

8.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics

Entropy of the universe always increases (ΔS ≥ 0).

8.7 Heat Engines & Refrigerators

Carnot efficiency: η = 1 – (T₂ / T₁)


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of:

(a) Conservation of mass
(b) Conservation of energy
(c) Conservation of momentum
(d) Conservation of charge

Q2. In an isothermal process, the change in internal energy is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q3. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:

(a) Working substance
(b) Temperature of source and sink
(c) Volume of cylinder
(d) Pressure of gas

Q4. The second law of thermodynamics implies that:

(a) Heat cannot flow from cold to hot body
(b) All heat can be converted to work
(c) Entropy of universe decreases
(d) All processes are reversible

Q5. For an adiabatic process, PVγ = constant, where γ is:

(a) Cₚ / Cᵥ
(b) Cᵥ / Cₚ
(c) Cₚ – Cᵥ
(d) Cₚ + Cᵥ

Q6. The work done in an isochoric process is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q7. The entropy of the universe:

(a) Always decreases
(b) Always increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases

Q8. For an ideal gas, the internal energy depends only on:

(a) Pressure
(b) Volume
(c) Temperature
(d) Density

Q9. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is:

(a) Q₂ / (Q₁ – Q₂)
(b) Q₁ / (Q₁ – Q₂)
(c) Q₂ / Q₁
(d) (Q₁ – Q₂) / Q₂

Q10. In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of the gas:

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases

Q11. The process in which no heat is exchanged is called:

(a) Isothermal
(b) Adiabatic
(c) Isobaric
(d) Isochoric

Q12. The slope of adiabatic curve is:

(a) Less steep than isothermal
(b) Steeper than isothermal
(c) Same as isothermal
(d) Horizontal

Q13. The efficiency of Carnot engine is 50%. If temperature of sink is 300 K, temperature of source is:

(a) 600 K
(b) 900 K
(c) 450 K
(d) 750 K

Q14. The change in internal energy in a cyclic process is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q15. The first law of thermodynamics is applicable to:

(a) Only mechanical systems
(b) Only thermal systems
(c) All systems
(d) Only chemical systems

Q16. For an ideal gas, Cᵥ = (3/2) R. The gas is:

(a) Monatomic
(b) Diatomic
(c) Triatomic
(d) Polyatomic

Q17. The area under P-V diagram represents:

(a) Work done
(b) Heat supplied
(c) Change in internal energy
(d) Entropy change

Q18. The second law of thermodynamics gives the concept of:

(a) Temperature
(b) Entropy
(c) Pressure
(d) Volume

Q19. In free expansion of an ideal gas, the work done is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q20. The relation between Cₚ and Cᵥ for an ideal gas is:

(a) Cₚ – Cᵥ = R
(b) Cₚ + Cᵥ = R
(c) Cₚ / Cᵥ = R
(d) Cₚ Cᵥ = R

9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

Chapter 9 Score: 0 / 20

9.1 Introduction

Kinetic Theory explains the behaviour of gases based on the motion of their molecules. It assumes gases consist of a large number of tiny particles in random motion.

9.2 Assumptions of Kinetic Theory

  1. Gas consists of large number of molecules in constant random motion.
  2. Volume of molecules is negligible compared to volume of container.
  3. Molecules do not exert force on each other except during collisions.
  4. Collisions are perfectly elastic.
  5. Time of collision is negligible compared to time between collisions.
  6. Molecules obey Newton’s laws of motion.

9.3 Pressure of an Ideal Gas

P = (1/3) ρ v_rms²

9.4 Kinetic Energy and Temperature

Average KE per molecule = (3/2) kT
v_rms = √(3RT/M)

9.5 Degrees of Freedom & Law of Equipartition

Each degree of freedom contributes (1/2) kT energy per molecule.
γ = 1 + 2/f

9.6 Mean Free Path

λ = 1 / (√2 π d² n)

9.7 Real Gases & van der Waals Equation

(P + a/V²)(V – b) = RT


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. According to kinetic theory of gases, the pressure exerted by gas is due to:

(a) Change in momentum of molecules
(b) Collision with walls
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Q2. The root mean square speed of gas molecules is:

(a) √(3RT/M)
(b) √(2RT/M)
(c) √(RT/M)
(d) √(8RT/πM)

Q3. The average kinetic energy per molecule of a gas is:

(a) (1/2) kT
(b) (3/2) kT
(c) kT
(d) 2 kT

Q4. For a diatomic gas, the value of γ (Cₚ/Cᵥ) is:

(a) 1.67
(b) 1.4
(c) 1.33
(d) 1.0

Q5. The mean free path of gas molecules is inversely proportional to:

(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Volume
(d) Density

Q6. The real gas equation is:

(a) PV = RT
(b) (P + a/V²)(V – b) = RT
(c) PV^γ = constant
(d) PV = nRT

Q7. At high temperature and low pressure, real gases behave like:

(a) Ideal gas
(b) Perfect gas
(c) Both
(d) None

Q8. The law of equipartition of energy states that each degree of freedom contributes:

(a) kT
(b) (1/2) kT
(c) 2 kT
(d) (3/2) kT

Q9. For monatomic gas, the molar specific heat at constant volume Cᵥ is:

(a) (3/2) R
(b) (5/2) R
(c) (7/2) R
(d) R

Q10. The root mean square speed is related to most probable speed as:

(a) v_rms = v_mp
(b) v_rms = √(3/2) v_mp
(c) v_rms = √(2) v_mp
(d) v_rms = 2 v_mp

Q11. The pressure of an ideal gas is given by:

(a) P = (1/3) ρ v_rms²
(b) P = ρ v_rms²
(c) P = (1/2) ρ v_rms²
(d) P = 2 ρ v_rms²

Q12. The average speed of gas molecules is:

(a) √(3RT/M)
(b) √(8RT/πM)
(c) √(2RT/M)
(d) √(RT/M)

Q13. In kinetic theory, the collision between molecules is:

(a) Perfectly elastic
(b) Perfectly inelastic
(c) Partially elastic
(d) Explosive

Q14. The temperature at which real gas behaves ideally is called:

(a) Critical temperature
(b) Boyle temperature
(c) Inversion temperature
(d) Absolute zero

Q15. The van der Waals constant ‘a’ is a measure of:

(a) Volume correction
(b) Intermolecular attraction
(c) Pressure correction
(d) Size of molecules

Q16. For hydrogen gas, the value of γ is:

(a) 1.67
(b) 1.4
(c) 1.33
(d) 1.0

Q17. The mean free path is independent of:

(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Molecular diameter
(d) Number density

Q18. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on:

(a) Pressure
(b) Volume
(c) Temperature
(d) Density

Q19. The ratio of specific heats γ is minimum for:

(a) Monatomic gas
(b) Diatomic gas
(c) Polyatomic gas
(d) All same

Q20. At absolute zero temperature, the rms speed of gas molecules is:

(a) Zero
(b) Maximum
(c) Minimum but not zero
(d) Infinite

10: Oscillations

Chapter 10 Score: 0 / 20

10.1 Introduction

Oscillations are periodic to-and-fro motions about a mean position. Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) is the simplest form of oscillatory motion.

10.2 Periodic and Oscillatory Motion

Period (T), Frequency (f = 1/T), Angular frequency (ω = 2πf).

10.3 Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)

a = –ω²x
x = A sin(ωt + φ)
v = Aω cos(ωt + φ) (max = Aω)
a = –Aω ² sin(ωt + φ) (max = Aω²)

10.4 Energy in SHM

KE = ½ m ω² (A² – x²)
PE = ½ m ω² x²
Total Energy = ½ m ω² A² (constant)

10.5 Simple Pendulum

T = 2π √(L/g)

10.6 Spring-Mass System

T = 2π √(m/k)

10.7 Damped and Forced Oscillations

Resonance occurs when driving frequency = natural frequency.


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. In simple harmonic motion, the acceleration is:

(a) Always constant
(b) Proportional to displacement
(c) Proportional to velocity
(d) Zero at mean position

Q2. The time period of a simple pendulum is independent of:

(a) Length
(b) Acceleration due to gravity
(c) Mass of bob
(d) Amplitude (for small angles)

Q3. The total energy in simple harmonic motion is:

(a) Constant
(b) Varies with time
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q4. The velocity of a particle in SHM is maximum at:

(a) Extreme position
(b) Mean position
(c) Half amplitude
(d) Any position

Q5. The time period of a spring-mass system is:

(a) 2π √(m/k)
(b) 2π √(k/m)
(c) 2π m/k
(d) 2π k/m

Q6. In SHM, the phase difference between velocity and displacement is:

(a) 0
(b) π/2
(c) π
(d) π/4

Q7. The restoring force in SHM is:

(a) Constant
(b) Proportional to displacement
(c) Proportional to velocity
(d) Zero at mean position

Q8. A simple pendulum has time period 2 s on Earth. On a planet where g is 4 times, time period will be:

(a) 1 s
(b) 2 s
(c) 4 s
(d) 0.5 s

Q9. The amplitude of SHM is:

(a) Maximum displacement
(b) Distance between extreme positions
(c) Half the distance between extreme positions
(d) None

Q10. For a particle in SHM, the potential energy is minimum at:

(a) Extreme position
(b) Mean position
(c) Half amplitude
(d) Any position

Q11. The frequency of oscillation of a simple pendulum is independent of:

(a) Length
(b) g
(c) Mass of bob
(d) Amplitude (small)

Q12. In damped oscillation, the amplitude:

(a) Increases with time
(b) Decreases with time
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases

Q13. The condition for resonance in forced oscillation is:

(a) Driving frequency = natural frequency
(b) Driving frequency > natural frequency
(c) Driving frequency < natural frequency
(d) Any frequency

Q14. The total energy in undamped SHM is:

(a) ½ k A²
(b) ½ m v²
(c) m g h
(d) ½ I ω²

Q15. A particle executes SHM with amplitude A. The distance from mean position where KE = PE is:

(a) A/√2
(b) A/2
(c) A/4
(d) A

Q16. The time period of a simple pendulum on the Moon (g_moon = g/6) is:

(a) Same as Earth
(b) √6 times
(c) 6 times
(d) 1/√6 times

Q17. In SHM, the acceleration is zero at:

(a) Extreme position
(b) Mean position
(c) Half amplitude
(d) Any position

Q18. The physical quantity that remains constant in undamped SHM is:

(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Total energy
(d) Displacement

Q19. The equation of SHM is x = A sin(ωt). The velocity is:

(a) A ω cos(ωt)
(b) – A ω cos(ωt)
(c) A ω sin(ωt)
(d) – A ω sin(ωt)

Q20. For a spring-mass system, if mass is doubled and spring constant is halved, the time period becomes:

(a) Same
(b) Double
(c) Half
(d) √2 times

11. Waves

Chapter 11 Score: 0 / 20

11.1 Introduction

Waves are disturbances that transfer energy from one point to another without the transfer of matter. They are of two main types: mechanical and electromagnetic.

11.2 Types of Waves

11.3 Wave Characteristics

11.4 Wave Equation

y = A sin(kx – ωt) or y = A sin(ωt – kx)
where k = 2π/λ (wave number), ω = 2πf (angular frequency)

11.5 Speed of Waves

Speed of sound increases with temperature and decreases with density.

11.6 Superposition of Waves

When two or more waves meet, the resultant displacement is the algebraic sum of individual displacements.

Interference:
Constructive: Path difference = nλ → Maximum intensity
Destructive: Path difference = (2n+1)λ/2 → Minimum intensity

11.7 Reflection of Waves

11.8 Standing Waves (Stationary Waves)

Formed by superposition of two waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in opposite directions.

For string fixed at both ends:
λ = 2L / n (n = 1,2,3...)
Fundamental frequency = v / (2L)

11.9 Beats

Beat frequency = |f₁ – f₂|

11.10 Doppler Effect

f' = f (v ± v_o) / (v ± v_s)


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The speed of a wave on a string is given by:

(a) v = √(T/μ)
(b) v = T/μ
(c) v = √(T μ)
(d) v = T μ

Q2. The distance between two consecutive crests is called:

(a) Amplitude
(b) Wavelength
(c) Frequency
(d) Time period

Q3. The frequency of a wave is 50 Hz. Its time period is:

(a) 0.02 s
(b) 0.2 s
(c) 2 s
(d) 20 s

Q4. In a longitudinal wave, the particles vibrate:

(a) Perpendicular to wave direction
(b) Parallel to wave direction
(c) In circular path
(d) Randomly

Q5. The speed of sound in air is approximately:

(a) 340 m/s
(b) 1500 m/s
(c) 3 × 10^8 m/s
(d) 500 m/s

Q6. When two waves of same frequency and amplitude interfere constructively, the resultant amplitude is:

(a) Zero
(b) 2A
(c) A
(d) A/2

Q7. The phenomenon of beats is due to:

(a) Diffraction
(b) Interference
(c) Reflection
(d) Refraction

Q8. The Doppler effect is observed when:

(a) Source and observer are at rest
(b) There is relative motion between source and observer
(c) Medium is moving
(d) Both source and observer are moving in same direction

Q9. For a standing wave on a string fixed at both ends, the distance between two consecutive nodes is:

(a) λ/2
(b) λ
(c) λ/4
(d) 2λ

Q10. The fundamental frequency of a string of length L is:

(a) v/(2L)
(b) v/L
(c) 2v/L
(d) 4v/L

Q11. Sound waves cannot travel in:

(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) Vacuum

Q12. The speed of sound is maximum in:

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Steel
(d) Vacuum

Q13. In an open organ pipe, the fundamental frequency has:

(a) One node and one antinode
(b) Two nodes and one antinode
(c) One node and two antinodes
(d) Three nodes

Q14. The beat frequency is equal to:

(a) Sum of frequencies
(b) Difference of frequencies
(c) Product of frequencies
(d) Average of frequencies

Q15. The wavelength of a sound wave is 1 m. Its frequency in air (v=340 m/s) is:

(a) 340 Hz
(b) 34 Hz
(c) 3.4 Hz
(d) 3400 Hz

Q16. In a closed organ pipe, the fundamental frequency has:

(a) Antinode at closed end
(b) Node at closed end
(c) Node at open end
(d) Antinode at both ends

Q17. The speed of sound in air is independent of:

(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Humidity
(d) Wind

Q18. When a wave travels from rarer to denser medium, its speed:

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Becomes zero

Q19. The phenomenon of superposition of two waves is called:

(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Interference
(d) Diffraction

Q20. The minimum distance between a node and an antinode in a standing wave is:

(a) λ/4
(b) λ/2
(c) λ
(d) 2λ

12. Electrostatics

Chapter 12 Score: 0 / 20

12.1 Introduction

Electrostatics is the study of electric charges at rest. Charges are of two types: positive and negative. Like charges repel, unlike charges attract.

12.2 Coulomb’s Law

The force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
F = k |q₁ q₂| / r²
(k = 1/(4πε₀) = 9 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻²)

12.3 Electric Field

Force experienced by a unit positive test charge.
E = F / q₀ = k Q / r² (directed away from positive charge)
Electric field lines start from positive charge and end on negative charge, never intersect.

12.4 Electric Flux & Gauss’s Law

Φ = E · A = E A cosθ
Gauss’s Law: Total electric flux through a closed surface = Q_enclosed / ε₀

12.5 Electric Potential

Work done per unit positive test charge from infinity.
V = k Q / r (scalar, unit: Volt)

12.6 Equipotential Surfaces

Surfaces where potential is same. No work is done in moving a charge on an equipotential surface.

12.7 Capacitance

C = Q / V
Parallel plate capacitor: C = ε₀ A / d
With dielectric: C = K ε₀ A / d
Energy stored: U = ½ C V² = Q² / (2C)

12.8 Combination of Capacitors


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The dimensional formula of electric field is:

(a) [MLT⁻²]
(b) [MLT⁻³A⁻¹]
(c) [ML²T⁻³A⁻¹]
(d) [M⁻¹L³T⁻³A]

Q2. Two charges +q and +4q are placed 6 cm apart. The point where electric field is zero is:

(a) 2 cm from +q
(b) 3 cm from +q
(c) 2 cm from +4q
(d) 4 cm from +q

Q3. The SI unit of electric flux is:

(a) N m
(b) N m² C⁻¹
(c) V m
(d) J C⁻¹

Q4. According to Gauss’s law, electric flux through a closed surface depends upon:

(a) Charge outside the surface
(b) Shape of the surface
(c) Charge enclosed by the surface
(d) Medium inside the surface

Q5. Electric potential is a:

(a) Vector quantity
(b) Scalar quantity
(c) Tensor
(d) Neither scalar nor vector

Q6. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases when:

(a) Area is doubled and distance halved
(b) Distance between plates is doubled
(c) Area is halved
(d) Dielectric with K < 1 is inserted

Q7. Energy stored in a charged capacitor is given by:

(a) QV
(b) Q²C
(c) ½ QV
(d) CV²

Q8. In series combination of capacitors, the equivalent capacitance is:

(a) Sum of individual capacitances
(b) Less than the smallest individual capacitance
(c) Greater than the largest
(d) Zero

Q9. The electric field inside a charged conductor is always:

(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) σ/ε₀
(d) σ/(2ε₀)

Q10. Electric potential at the midpoint between two charges +q and –q separated by 2a is:

(a) Zero
(b) kq/a
(c) –kq/a
(d) 2kq/a

Q11. When a dielectric is inserted in a charged capacitor (battery disconnected), its potential difference:

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Becomes zero

Q12. Work done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface is:

(a) Zero
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Infinite

Q13. Electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge is:

(a) kσ/r
(b) σ/ε₀
(c) σ/(2ε₀)
(d) Zero

Q14. Three capacitors 2 μF, 4 μF and 6 μF are connected in parallel. Equivalent capacitance is:

(a) 1 μF
(b) 12 μF
(c) 3 μF
(d) 24 μF

Q15. Torque on an electric dipole in uniform electric field is maximum when angle between p and E is:

(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Q16. If a dielectric is introduced between the plates of a charged isolated capacitor, its energy:

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Becomes zero

Q17. Electric potential due to a point charge at distance r is 30 V. If distance is doubled, potential becomes:

(a) 60 V
(b) 15 V
(c) 7.5 V
(d) 120 V

Q18. A 10 μF capacitor is charged to 100 V. Energy stored in it is:

(a) 0.05 J
(b) 0.1 J
(c) 0.5 J
(d) 1 J

Q19. Force between two charges is F. If both charges are doubled and distance is halved, new force is:

(a) F
(b) 2F
(c) 16F
(d) 4F

Q20. Electric field at equatorial point due to a dipole is:

(a) Directed opposite to dipole moment
(b) Zero
(c) Directed along dipole moment
(d) Infinite

13. Current Electricity

Chapter 13 Score: 0 / 20

13.1 Introduction

Current electricity deals with the flow of electric charges in conductors. It is the study of steady (direct) current in electrical circuits.

13.2 Electric Current

Rate of flow of charge through a cross-section.
I = Q / t (SI unit: Ampere, A)
Current is a scalar quantity. Conventional current flows from positive to negative terminal.

13.3 Ohm’s Law

For ohmic conductors at constant temperature, potential difference is directly proportional to current.
V = I R
R = Resistance (unit: Ohm, Ω)

13.4 Resistance and Resistivity

R = ρ L / A
ρ = Resistivity (material property, unit: Ω m)
- Resistance of metals increases with temperature.
- Resistance of semiconductors decreases with temperature.

13.5 Combination of Resistances

13.6 Kirchhoff’s Laws

13.7 Wheatstone Bridge & Meter Bridge

Balanced when P/Q = R/S → No current through galvanometer.
Meter Bridge is a practical form used to measure unknown resistance.

13.8 Potentiometer

A device to measure potential difference accurately.
Principle: Potential gradient along uniform wire is constant.
Applications: Comparison of emfs, measurement of internal resistance.

13.9 Cells and EMF

EMF (E): Work done by cell per unit charge.
Terminal voltage V = E – Ir (when current flows)
- Series: Total EMF = nE, Total r = nr
- Parallel: Total EMF = E, Total r = r/n

13.10 Heating Effect of Current (Joule’s Law)

H = I² R t
Power P = I² R = V I = V² / R


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The SI unit of electric current is:

(a) Volt
(b) Ampere
(c) Ohm
(d) Coulomb

Q2. According to Ohm’s law, if temperature is constant:

(a) V ∝ I
(b) I ∝ 1/V
(c) V is independent of I
(d) R decreases with current

Q3. Resistance of a wire is doubled when its length is doubled and area of cross-section is:

(a) Doubled
(b) Halved
(c) Made four times
(d) Remains same

Q4. Three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. Equivalent resistance is:

(a) 11 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 6 Ω
(d) 3 Ω

Q5. Kirchhoff’s Current Law is based on the conservation of:

(a) Charge
(b) Energy
(c) Momentum
(d) Mass

Q6. In series combination of resistors, the equivalent resistance is:

(a) Less than smallest resistance
(b) Sum of all resistances
(c) Greater than largest resistance
(d) Zero

Q7. The condition for balance in a Wheatstone bridge is:

(a) P + Q = R + S
(b) P/Q = R/S
(c) P = R and Q = S
(d) Current through galvanometer is maximum

Q8. A potentiometer is used to:

(a) Measure current
(b) Measure resistance only
(c) Compare emf of cells accurately
(d) Measure power

Q9. Terminal voltage of a cell is less than its emf when:

(a) No current is drawn
(b) Current is drawn from the cell
(c) Cell is being charged
(d) Internal resistance is zero

Q10. According to Joule’s law of heating, heat produced is:

(a) Directly proportional to current
(b) Directly proportional to resistance
(c) Directly proportional to time
(d) All of the above

Q11. Resistivity of a material depends on:

(a) Length of wire
(b) Area of cross-section
(c) Nature of material and temperature
(d) Applied voltage

Q12. In a series circuit, the current is:

(a) Same through all resistors
(b) Different through each resistor
(c) Zero
(d) Inversely proportional to resistance

Q13. The internal resistance of a cell is:

(a) External resistance
(b) Resistance offered by electrolyte
(c) Resistance of connecting wires
(d) Infinite

Q14. Meter bridge is based on the principle of:

(a) Ohm’s law
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Kirchhoff’s law
(d) Joule’s law

Q15. Power dissipated in a resistor is maximum when:

(a) Current is minimum
(b) Resistance is minimum
(c) It is connected to a cell with low internal resistance
(d) Voltage is minimum

Q16. Three cells of emf 2 V each and internal resistance 1 Ω each are connected in series. Total emf and total internal resistance are:

(a) 2 V, 1 Ω
(b) 6 V, 3 Ω
(c) 6 V, 1 Ω
(d) 2 V, 3 Ω

Q17. The colour code for a 1 kΩ resistor is:

(a) Brown-Black-Red
(b) Red-Red-Brown
(c) Brown-Black-Orange
(d) Orange-Orange-Brown

Q18. In a potentiometer, the null point is obtained at 40 cm for a cell of emf 1.2 V. For another cell, null point is at 60 cm. Its emf is:

(a) 0.8 V
(b) 1.8 V
(c) 2.4 V
(d) 3.0 V

Q19. The heating element of an electric heater should have:

(a) High resistivity and low melting point
(b) Low resistivity and high melting point
(c) High resistivity and high melting point
(d) Low resistivity and low melting point

Q20. A 100 W bulb is connected to 200 V supply. Current drawn by the bulb is:

(a) 0.25 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 2 A

14. Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

Chapter 14 Score: 0 / 20

14.1 Introduction

This chapter deals with the magnetic field produced by electric current and the properties of magnets.

14.2 Biot-Savart Law

Magnetic field due to a small current element:
dB = (μ₀ / 4π) (I dl sinθ / r²)
(μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T m A⁻¹)

14.3 Magnetic Field due to Current Carrying Conductors

14.4 Ampere’s Circuital Law

∮ B · dl = μ₀ I_enclosed

14.5 Force on Moving Charge

F = q (v × B)
F = q v B sinθ
Radius of path: r = m v / (q B)
Time period: T = 2π m / (q B)

14.6 Force on Current Carrying Conductor

F = I (L × B)
F = I L B sinθ

14.7 Torque on Current Loop

τ = N I A B sinθ
Moving coil galvanometer works on this principle.

14.8 Magnetic Properties of Materials

B = μ₀ (H + M)
χ = M / H, μ_r = 1 + χ

Curie’s Law: χ ∝ 1/T (for paramagnetic materials)


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The SI unit of magnetic field B is:

(a) Tesla
(b) Tesla
(c) Weber
(d) Gauss

Q2. Magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying wire at distance r is:

(a) μ₀ I / (2 r)
(b) μ₀ I / (2π r)
(c) μ₀ I / (4π r)
(d) μ₀ I / r

Q3. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of radius R carrying current I is:

(a) μ₀ I / (2R)
(b) μ₀ I / (2π R)
(c) μ₀ I / R
(d) 2μ₀ I / R

Q4. Inside a long solenoid, magnetic field is:

(a) Zero
(b) μ₀ I
(c) μ₀ n I
(d) μ₀ N I

Q5. Ampere’s circuital law is:

(a) ∮ E · dl = μ₀ I
(b) ∮ B · dl = μ₀ I_enclosed
(c) ∮ B · dl = μ₀ / I
(d) ∮ E · dl = Q/ε₀

Q6. Force on a moving charge in magnetic field is given by:

(a) F = qE
(b) F = qvB
(c) F = q (v × B)
(d) F = B (v × q)

Q7. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field. The work done by magnetic force is:

(a) Zero
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Depends on velocity

Q8. Force on a current-carrying conductor in magnetic field is:

(a) I (B × L)
(b) I (L × B)
(c) B (I × L)
(d) Zero

Q9. Torque on a current loop in uniform magnetic field is maximum when angle between area vector and B is:

(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Q10. The magnetic field inside a toroid is:

(a) Zero
(b) μ₀ N I / (2π r)
(c) μ₀ n I
(d) μ₀ I / (2R)

Q11. A charged particle enters perpendicular to magnetic field. Its path is:

(a) Straight line
(b) Circular
(c) Parabolic
(d) Elliptical

Q12. The working principle of moving coil galvanometer is:

(a) Force on charge
(b) Ampere’s law
(c) Torque on current loop
(d) Biot-Savart law

Q13. Diamagnetic materials have:

(a) Negative susceptibility
(b) Positive susceptibility
(c) High positive susceptibility
(d) Zero susceptibility

Q14. Curie’s law is applicable for:

(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) All materials

Q15. Hysteresis curve is shown by:

(a) Diamagnetic only
(b) Paramagnetic only
(c) Ferromagnetic materials
(d) All materials

Q16. The magnetic field inside a solenoid does not depend on:

(a) Current
(b) Number of turns per unit length
(c) Permeability of medium
(d) Length of solenoid

Q17. A proton and an α-particle enter a magnetic field with same velocity. The ratio of radii of their paths is:

(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:4

Q18. The direction of magnetic field due to a current-carrying wire is given by:

(a) Right hand thumb rule
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule
(c) Right hand thumb rule
(d) Fleming’s right hand rule

Q19. The magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic material is:

(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) Very large

Q20. Area of hysteresis loop represents:

(a) Retentivity
(b) Energy loss per cycle
(c) Coercivity
(d) Permeability

15. Electromagnetic Induction

Chapter 15 Score: 0 / 20

15.1 Introduction

Electromagnetic Induction is the phenomenon of inducing an emf (and hence current) in a conductor due to change in magnetic flux linked with it.

15.2 Magnetic Flux

Φ = B · A = B A cosθ
(SI unit: Weber, Wb)

15.3 Faraday’s Laws of Electromagnetic Induction

15.4 Lenz’s Law

The direction of induced emf is such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it (conservation of energy).

15.5 Induced emf in Moving Conductor (Motional emf)

e = B l v (rod moving perpendicular to B)
For rotating rod: e = ½ B ω L²

15.6 Eddy Currents

Induced currents in bulk conductors. They cause energy loss (heating) but are useful in induction furnaces, electromagnetic damping, speedometers, etc.

15.7 Self-Induction

Induced emf due to change in current in the same coil.
e = – L di/dt
L = Self-inductance (unit: Henry)
For solenoid: L = μ₀ N² A / l

15.8 Mutual Induction

Induced emf in one coil due to change in current in neighbouring coil.
e₂ = – M di₁/dt
M = Mutual inductance

15.9 AC Generator

Works on electromagnetic induction.
Induced emf = N B A ω sin(ωt)


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is based on the law of conservation of:

(a) Charge
(b) Energy
(c) Momentum
(d) Mass

Q2. Induced emf in a coil is given by Faraday’s law as:

(a) e = dΦ/dt
(b) e = Φ/dt
(c) e = – dΦ/dt
(d) e = Φ

Q3. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of:

(a) Charge
(b) Energy
(c) Momentum
(d) Angular momentum

Q4. Motional emf induced in a rod of length l moving with velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B is:

(a) B l
(b) B l v
(c) B v
(d) B l / v

Q5. The self-inductance of a coil is measured in:

(a) Weber
(b) Ohm
(c) Henry
(d) Tesla

Q6. Eddy currents are used in:

(a) Induction furnace
(b) Electromagnetic braking
(c) Speedometers
(d) All of these

Q7. The energy stored in an inductor carrying current I is:

(a) ½ L I
(b) ½ L I²
(c) L I²
(d) L I

Q8. In mutual induction, the induced emf in secondary coil is:

(a) M di₁/dt
(b) –M di₂/dt
(c) –M di₁/dt
(d) M di₂/dt

Q9. The peak value of emf induced in AC generator is:

(a) N B A ω
(b) N B A ω
(c) N B A
(d) B A ω

Q10. The direction of induced current is given by:

(a) Fleming’s left hand rule
(b) Right hand thumb rule
(c) Lenz’s law
(d) Ampere’s law

Q11. Self-inductance of a coil depends on:

(a) Current through it
(b) Induced emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Geometry and number of turns

Q12. When a magnet is moved towards a coil, the induced current opposes the motion. This is due to:

(a) Faraday’s first law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Ohm’s law
(d) Ampere’s law

Q13. The unit of mutual inductance is:

(a) Weber
(b) Tesla
(c) Henry
(d) Ohm

Q14. In an AC generator, the induced emf is maximum when the coil is:

(a) Parallel to magnetic field
(b) Perpendicular to magnetic field
(c) At 45°
(d) At rest

Q15. Eddy currents can be minimised by:

(a) Using thick conductors
(b) Increasing frequency
(c) Using laminated cores
(d) Using DC supply

Q16. The inductance of a solenoid is increased by:

(a) Increasing length
(b) Decreasing number of turns
(c) Decreasing area
(d) Increasing number of turns

Q17. A conducting rod of length l moves with velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B. Induced emf is maximum when angle between v and B is:

(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Q18. The energy stored in a magnetic field of inductor is:

(a) ½ C V²
(b) ½ L I²
(c) I² R t
(d) B² / (2μ₀)

Q19. When a magnet is dropped into a metallic tube, its acceleration is:

(a) Equal to g
(b) Less than g
(c) Greater than g
(d) Zero

Q20. In an AC generator, the frequency of induced emf is:

(a) Equal to angular velocity
(b) Half the angular velocity
(c) Equal to frequency of rotation
(d) Twice the frequency of rotation

16. Alternating Current

Chapter 16 Score: 0 / 20

16.1 Introduction

Alternating Current (AC) periodically reverses its direction. It is easier to transmit over long distances and can be stepped up or down using transformers.

16.2 AC Voltage and Current

V = V₀ sin(ωt) or V = V₀ cos(ωt)
I = I₀ sin(ωt + φ)

16.3 AC Circuit with Pure Elements

16.4 Impedance, Phase and Power

Impedance Z = √[R² + (X_L – X_C)²]
Phase angle φ = tan⁻¹[(X_L – X_C)/R]
Average Power P_avg = V_rms I_rms cosφ
Power factor = cosφ (1 for resistor, 0 for pure L or C)

16.5 LC Oscillations

Energy oscillates between capacitor and inductor.
Resonant frequency f = 1 / (2π √(LC))

16.6 Transformer

Step-up / Step-down AC voltage.
V_s / V_p = N_s / N_p
I_p / I_s = N_s / N_p (ideal)
Efficiency = (Output Power / Input Power) × 100%
Losses: Copper loss, Iron loss (hysteresis + eddy current), Flux leakage.


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The RMS value of AC current is related to peak value I₀ as:

(a) I_rms = I₀
(b) I_rms = I₀ / √2
(c) I_rms = I₀ √2
(d) I_rms = 2I₀

Q2. In a purely inductive circuit, the phase difference between voltage and current is:

(a) 0°
(b) 90° (current leads)
(c) 90° (current lags)
(d) 180°

Q3. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is:

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) –1

Q4. In an LCR series circuit at resonance, the impedance is:

(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum (equal to R)
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q5. The average power dissipated in a pure inductor is:

(a) Zero
(b) V_rms I_rms
(c) ½ V₀ I₀
(d) I_rms² R

Q6. For a transformer, the turns ratio N_s / N_p = 4. It is a:

(a) Step-down transformer
(b) Step-up transformer
(c) Ideal transformer
(d) Current transformer

Q7. The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is:

(a) 1/(2π√(LC))
(b) 2π√(LC)
(c) √(LC)/2π
(d) 2π/LC

Q8. In a series LCR circuit, power factor is maximum when:

(a) X_L > X_C
(b) X_L < X_C
(c) X_L = X_C
(d) R = 0

Q9. The inductive reactance X_L is:

(a) 1/(2πfL)
(b) 2πfL
(c) 2π/L
(d) 1/(2πfC)

Q10. In a transformer, if input power is 1000 W and efficiency is 90%, output power is:

(a) 900 W
(b) 900 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1111 W

Q11. The capacitive reactance X_C decreases with:

(a) Decrease in frequency
(b) Increase in frequency
(c) Increase in capacitance
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q12. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the average power dissipated is:

(a) Zero
(b) V_rms I_rms / 2
(c) V_rms I_rms
(d) V₀ I₀

Q13. The unit of inductive reactance is:

(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Farad
(d) Tesla

Q14. At resonance in LCR circuit, the current is:

(a) Minimum
(b) Maximum
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q15. The power factor of a series LCR circuit at resonance is:

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 0.5
(d) –1

Q16. In a transformer, core is laminated to reduce:

(a) Copper loss
(b) Eddy current loss
(c) Hysteresis loss
(d) Flux leakage

Q17. The frequency of AC supply in India is:

(a) 50 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 100 Hz

Q18. In a purely capacitive circuit, current:

(a) Lags voltage by 90°
(b) Is in phase with voltage
(c) Leads voltage by 90°
(d) Leads by 180°

Q19. The reactance of a capacitor at very high frequency becomes:

(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Equal to resistance
(d) Negative

Q20. In an ideal transformer, the efficiency is:

(a) 100%
(b) Less than 100%
(c) Greater than 100%
(d) Depends on load

17. Electromagnetic Waves

Chapter 17 Score: 0 / 20

17.1 Introduction

Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves produced by accelerating charges. They do not require a medium and travel with the speed of light in vacuum (c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s).

17.2 Displacement Current

Maxwell modified Ampere’s law by introducing displacement current.
I_d = ε₀ dΦ_E / dt
This makes the equations consistent and leads to the prediction of electromagnetic waves.

17.3 Electromagnetic Spectrum

EM waves are classified by frequency/wavelength:

17.4 Properties of EM Waves

17.5 Energy and Intensity

Poynting Vector S = (1/μ₀) E × B (direction of energy flow)
Average intensity I = (1/2) c ε₀ E₀² = (1/2) E₀ B₀ / μ₀

17.6 Momentum and Radiation Pressure

Momentum p = U / c (U = energy)
Radiation pressure = I / c (perfect absorber)
= 2I / c (perfect reflector)


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. Electromagnetic waves are:

(a) Longitudinal
(b) Transverse
(c) Both longitudinal and transverse
(d) Neither

Q2. The speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum is given by:

(a) √(μ₀ ε₀)
(b) μ₀ ε₀
(c) 1/√(μ₀ ε₀)
(d) μ₀ / ε₀

Q3. Displacement current was introduced by:

(a) Faraday
(b) Maxwell
(c) Ampere
(d) Hertz

Q4. Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

(a) Radio waves
(b) X-rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) UV rays

Q5. The Poynting vector represents:

(a) Electric field direction
(b) Direction of energy flow
(c) Magnetic field direction
(d) Polarisation direction

Q6. Radiation pressure on a perfect absorber is:

(a) I / c
(b) 2I / c
(c) I c
(d) Zero

Q7. EM waves are produced by:

(a) Stationary charges
(b) Constant current
(c) Accelerating charges
(d) Neutrons

Q8. Which EM wave is used in radar?

(a) Radio waves
(b) Microwaves
(c) Infrared
(d) X-rays

Q9. The frequency range of visible light is approximately:

(a) 10¹⁴ – 10¹⁵ Hz
(b) 4 × 10¹⁴ – 7.5 × 10¹⁴ Hz
(c) 10¹⁶ – 10¹⁷ Hz
(d) 10¹⁸ Hz

Q10. The wave that carries maximum energy per photon is:

(a) Radio wave
(b) Microwave
(c) Visible light
(d) Gamma ray

Q11. Displacement current exists only when:

(a) Electric field is steady
(b) Magnetic field is steady
(c) Electric field is changing with time
(d) Current is steady

Q12. The ratio of electric field to magnetic field in EM wave is:

(a) c
(b) c
(c) 1/c
(d) μ₀ ε₀

Q13. Which EM wave is used for sterilisation?

(a) Radio waves
(b) Microwaves
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Infrared

Q14. The energy density of EM wave is:

(a) ε₀ E²
(b) B² / μ₀
(c) (1/2) ε₀ E² + B ²/(2μ₀)
(d) ε₀ E B

Q15. Which of the following can be polarised?

(a) Sound waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Water waves
(d) Electromagnetic waves

Q16. The wavelength range of X-rays is approximately:

(a) 10⁻² m to 10⁻⁴ m
(b) 10⁻⁸ m to 10⁻¹² m
(c) 700 nm to 400 nm
(d) 10⁻³ m

Q17. The source of gamma rays is:

(a) Hot objects
(b) Accelerated electrons
(c) Nuclear transitions
(d) Radio antennas

Q18. Intensity of EM wave is proportional to:

(a) E₀
(b) B₀
(c) E₀²
(d) B₀²

Q19. Which wave has the highest penetrating power?

(a) Radio wave
(b) Visible light
(c) X-ray
(d) Gamma ray

Q20. The relation c = 1/√(μ₀ ε₀) shows that speed of light depends on:

(a) Frequency of wave
(b) Permeability and permittivity of medium
(c) Source of wave
(d) Amplitude

18. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Chapter 18 Score: 0 / 20

18.1 Introduction

Ray Optics treats light as rays travelling in straight lines. It explains reflection, refraction, and image formation by mirrors and lenses.

18.2 Reflection of Light

Laws of Reflection: Angle of incidence = angle of reflection; incident ray, reflected ray and normal lie in the same plane.

Plane Mirror: Virtual, erect image of same size.

Spherical Mirrors:
Concave (converging), Convex (diverging)

Mirror Formula: 1/v + 1/u = 1/f
Magnification: m = –v/u = h'/h

18.3 Refraction of Light

Snell’s Law: μ = sin i / sin r
Refractive index μ = c / v

Refraction at Spherical Surface: μ₂/v – μ₁/u = (μ₂ – μ₁)/R

18.4 Lenses

Thin Lens Formula: 1/v – 1/u = 1/f
Lens Maker’s Formula: 1/f = (μ – 1)(1/R₁ – 1/R₂)

Power of Lens: P = 1/f (metre) → unit: Dioptre (D)
Combination in contact: P = P₁ + P₂

18.5 Prism

Deviation δ = (μ – 1)A (small angle prism)
Dispersion: Splitting of white light into colours (VIBGYOR)
Rainbow: Natural dispersion by water droplets.

18.6 Optical Instruments

18.7 Defects of Vision


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The focal length of a concave mirror is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q2. Image formed by a plane mirror is:

(a) Real and inverted
(b) Real and erect
(c) Virtual and erect
(d) Virtual and inverted

Q3. Mirror formula is:

(a) 1/v – 1/u = 1/f
(b) 1/v + 1/u = 1/f
(c) v + u = f
(d) v – u = f

Q4. For a convex mirror, focal length is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Q5. Snell’s law is:

(a) μ = sin r / sin i
(b) μ = sin i / sin r
(c) μ = i / r
(d) μ = r / i

Q6. Power of a lens is measured in:

(a) Watt
(b) Dioptre
(c) Dioptre
(d) Newton

Q7. For a convex lens, when object is at 2F, image is:

(a) Virtual and erect
(b) Real, inverted and same size
(c) Real and enlarged
(d) Virtual and diminished

Q8. Rainbow is formed due to:

(a) Reflection only
(b) Refraction only
(c) Refraction and dispersion
(d) Diffraction

Q9. The magnifying power of a simple microscope is:

(a) D/f
(b) 1 + D/f
(c) D/f – 1
(d) f/D

Q10. Myopia is corrected by:

(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex lens
(c) Cylindrical lens
(d) Bifocal lens

Q11. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. Its power is:

(a) +2 D
(b) +5 D
(c) –5 D
(d) +0.5 D

Q12. For a concave mirror, object at infinity, image is formed at:

(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Focus
(c) Pole
(d) Infinity

Q13. The angle of minimum deviation for a prism depends on:

(a) Angle of incidence only
(b) Angle of prism only
(c) Refractive index and angle of prism
(d) Wavelength only

Q14. Astronomical telescope in normal adjustment has magnification:

(a) f_o / f_e
(b) – f_o / f_e
(c) f_e / f_o
(d) – f_e / f_o

Q15. Hypermetropia is corrected by:

(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex lens
(c) Cylindrical lens
(d) Bifocal lens

Q16. Critical angle is the angle of incidence for which angle of refraction is:

(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Q17. A convex lens forms real image when object is placed:

(a) At focus
(b) Between focus and optical centre
(c) Beyond focus
(d) At infinity only

Q18. The splitting of white light into colours is called:

(a) Reflection
(b) Dispersion
(c) Diffraction
(d) Interference

Q19. For compound microscope, magnification is:

(a) – f_o / f_e
(b) 1 + D/f
(c) – (L/f_o)(1 + D/f_e)
(d) D/f

Q20. Astigmatism is corrected by:

(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex lens
(c) Cylindrical lens
(d) Bifocal lens

19. Wave Optics

Chapter 19 Score: 0 / 20

19.1 Introduction

Wave Optics deals with the wave nature of light. It explains phenomena like interference, diffraction, and polarisation that cannot be explained by ray optics.

19.2 Huygens’ Principle

Every point on a wavefront acts as a source of secondary spherical wavelets. The new wavefront is the tangent to these secondary wavelets.

19.3 Interference of Light

Superposition of two waves of same frequency and constant phase difference.
Young’s Double Slit Experiment:
Bright fringe: Path difference = nλ
Dark fringe: Path difference = (2n+1)λ/2
Fringe width β = λ D / d

19.4 Diffraction

Bending of light around obstacles or through apertures.
Single Slit Diffraction:
Central maximum width ≈ 2λD/a
Minima: a sinθ = nλ

19.5 Polarisation

Restriction of vibration of electric field vector in a particular plane.
Malus’ Law: I = I₀ cos²θ
Brewster’s Law: tan i_p = μ

19.6 Resolving Power

Ability to distinguish two closely spaced objects.
Resolving power of microscope = 1.22λ / (2μ sinθ)
Resolving power of telescope = 1.22λ / D


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. Wave optics is based on the:

(a) Particle nature of light
(b) Wave nature of light
(c) Both particle and wave nature
(d) Quantum nature only

Q2. According to Huygens’ principle, the new wavefront is:

(a) Perpendicular to secondary wavelets
(b) Parallel to secondary wavelets
(c) Tangent to secondary wavelets
(d) Normal to secondary wavelets

Q3. In Young’s double slit experiment, bright fringes occur when path difference is:

(a) nλ
(b) (2n+1)λ/2
(c) λ/2
(d) λ/4

Q4. Fringe width in Young’s double slit experiment is given by:

(a) λ d / D
(b) λ D / d
(c) λ / D
(d) d / λ

Q5. Central fringe in Young’s double slit experiment is:

(a) Bright
(b) Dark
(c) Red
(d) Blue

Q6. In single slit diffraction, the width of central maximum is:

(a) λ D / a
(b) 2λ / D
(c) 2λ D / a
(d) λ a / D

Q7. Malus’ law is related to:

(a) Diffraction
(b) Polarisation
(c) Interference
(d) Reflection

Q8. Brewster’s law gives the relation for:

(a) Fringe width
(b) Resolving power
(c) Polarising angle
(d) Critical angle

Q9. Resolving power of a telescope is proportional to:

(a) Wavelength of light
(b) Diameter of objective
(c) Focal length of eyepiece
(d) Length of tube

Q10. In interference pattern, if one slit is closed, the pattern becomes:

(a) Interference pattern only
(b) Diffraction pattern
(c) No pattern
(d) Uniform illumination

Q11. Coherent sources are required for:

(a) Interference
(b) Diffraction
(c) Polarisation
(d) Reflection

Q12. The condition for constructive interference is:

(a) Path difference = nλ
(b) Path difference = (2n+1)λ/2
(c) Path difference = λ/2
(d) Path difference = 0 only

Q13. Polarisation proves that light is:

(a) Longitudinal wave
(b) Transverse wave
(c) Particle
(d) Electromagnetic wave only

Q14. In single slit diffraction, position of first minima is given by:

(a) a sinθ = λ
(b) a sinθ = 2λ
(c) a sinθ = λ/2
(d) a sinθ = 0

Q15. The resolving power of a microscope increases with:

(a) Increase in wavelength
(b) Decrease in aperture
(c) Decrease in wavelength
(d) Increase in focal length

Q16. Which of the following cannot be polarised?

(a) Light
(b) Radio waves
(c) X-rays
(d) Sound waves

Q17. In interference, the intensity at bright fringe is:

(a) Zero
(b) Minimum
(c) Maximum (4I₀)
(d) I₀

Q18. The angular width of central maximum in single slit diffraction is proportional to:

(a) Slit width
(b) Wavelength
(c) Distance to screen
(d) All of these

Q19. Polaroids are used in:

(a) Sunglasses
(b) LCD screens
(c) 3D glasses
(d) All of these

Q20. The phenomenon responsible for the blue colour of the sky is:

(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Scattering
(d) Diffraction

20. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Chapter 20 Score: 0 / 20

20.1 Introduction

This chapter explains the dual nature of light and matter — both behave as waves as well as particles.

20.2 Photoelectric Effect

Phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metal surface when light of suitable frequency falls on it.

Experimental Observations:

Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation:

hf = φ₀ + ½ m v_max² (where φ₀ = hf₀ = work function)

Stopping potential V₀ = (hf – φ₀)/e

20.3 Matter Waves (de Broglie Hypothesis)

All moving particles have wave nature.

de Broglie wavelength: λ = h / p = h / (m v) = h / √(2mK)

Wavelength is significant for microscopic particles (electrons, protons etc.).

20.4 Davisson-Germer Experiment

Confirmed wave nature of electrons by observing diffraction pattern from nickel crystal.

20.5 Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle

It is impossible to simultaneously determine both position and momentum of a particle with absolute accuracy.

Δx · Δp ≥ h / (4π) (or ≥ ħ/2)


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The photoelectric effect proves the:

(a) Wave nature of light
(b) Particle nature of light
(c) Dual nature of light
(d) Dual nature of matter

Q2. The threshold frequency for a metal is f₀. If the frequency of incident light is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons becomes:

(a) Half
(b) Same
(c) More than double
(d) Less than double

Q3. The slope of the graph between stopping potential (V₀) and frequency (f) of incident light is:

(a) h/e
(b) e/h
(c) h
(d) e

Q4. de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through potential V is:

(a) λ ∝ V
(b) λ ∝ 1/√V
(c) λ ∝ V²
(d) λ is independent of V

Q5. Which experiment confirmed the wave nature of electrons?

(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Compton effect
(c) Davisson-Germer experiment
(d) Millikan oil drop experiment

Q6. If the momentum of a particle is doubled, its de Broglie wavelength becomes:

(a) Double
(b) Half
(c) Four times
(d) One-fourth

Q7. The work function of a metal is 2 eV. Light of wavelength 2000 Å is incident on it. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is (hc = 12400 eV Å):

(a) 2 eV
(b) 4 eV
(c) 4.2 eV
(d) 6.2 eV

Q8. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is a consequence of:

(a) Dual nature of matter
(b) Wave nature of light
(c) Particle nature of light
(d) Conservation of energy

Q9. The de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron of mass m moving with velocity v is:

(a) h/mv²
(b) h/mv
(c) mv/h
(d) m/hv

Q10. In photoelectric effect, if intensity is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons:

(a) Doubles
(b) Halves
(c) Remains same
(d) Becomes four times

Q11. The minimum uncertainty in position of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg) moving with velocity 300 m/s is (h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s):

(a) 1.9 × 10⁻³ m
(b) 3.8 × 10⁻³ m
(c) 1.9 × 10⁻⁴ m
(d) 3.8 × 10⁻⁴ m

Q12. Which of the following particles has the largest de Broglie wavelength when moving with same velocity?

(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) α-particle
(d) Neutron

Q13. In photoelectric effect, the graph of maximum kinetic energy vs frequency is:

(a) Parabola
(b) Straight line with positive slope
(c) Hyperbola
(d) Circle

Q14. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle at rest is:

(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Finite but small
(d) Not defined

Q15. If the frequency of incident light is increased by 20%, the stopping potential increases by 50%. The work function of the metal is (in eV, approx):

(a) 1.2
(b) 2.4
(c) 3.6
(d) 4.8

Q16. Which of the following has the smallest de Broglie wavelength?

(a) Electron (100 eV)
(b) Proton (100 eV)
(c) α-particle (100 eV)
(d) All have same wavelength

Q17. The photoelectric current is directly proportional to:

(a) Intensity of incident light
(b) Frequency of incident light
(c) Stopping potential
(d) Work function

Q18. Uncertainty in position of an electron is 0.01 Å. The uncertainty in its momentum is (approx):

(a) 5.27 × 10⁻²⁴ kg m/s
(b) 5.27 × 10⁻²³ kg m/s
(c) 5.27 × 10⁻²² kg m/s
(d) 5.27 × 10⁻²¹ kg m/s

Q19. The de Broglie wavelength of a 100 g ball moving with velocity 100 m/s is:

(a) 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ m
(b) 6.63 × 10⁻³³ m
(c) 6.63 × 10⁻³⁵ m
(d) 6.63 × 10⁻³² m

Q20. In photoelectric effect, the number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to:

(a) Frequency of light
(b) Intensity of light
(c) Stopping potential
(d) Work function

21. Atoms

Chapter 21 Score: 0 / 20

21.1 Introduction

This chapter deals with the structure of atoms and the experimental evidence that led to the modern model of the atom.

21.2 Alpha Particle Scattering Experiment (Rutherford)

Most alpha particles passed straight through the thin gold foil, a few were deflected by large angles, and very few bounced back.

Conclusions:

Distance of closest approach: d = (Z e²) / (4πε₀ K) where K is kinetic energy of α-particle.

21.3 Bohr’s Model of Hydrogen Atom

Postulates:

  1. Electrons revolve in stationary orbits without radiating energy.
  2. Angular momentum is quantised: mvr = n h / (2π)
  3. Energy is emitted/absorbed only when electron jumps between orbits.

Radius of nth orbit: rₙ = n² a₀ / Z (a₀ = 0.529 Å)

Velocity: vₙ = (2.18 × 10⁶ Z / n) m/s

Energy: Eₙ = –13.6 Z² / n² eV

Energy difference: ΔE = 13.6 Z ² (1/n₁² – 1/n₂ ²) eV

21.4 Spectral Series of Hydrogen

Rydberg Formula: 1/λ = R (1/n₁² – 1/n₂²) (R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹)

21.5 Limitations of Bohr’s Model


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. In Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment, most particles passed undeflected because:

(a) They hit the nucleus
(b) Atom is mostly empty space
(c) They are repelled by electrons
(d) Gold foil is very thick

Q2. The radius of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529 Å. The radius of second orbit is:

(a) 0.529 Å
(b) 1.058 Å
(c) 2.116 Å
(d) 4.232 Å

Q3. The energy required to excite electron in hydrogen atom from n=2 to n=3 is:

(a) 1.51 eV
(b) 1.89 eV
(c) 10.2 eV
(d) 12.09 eV

Q4. Which series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the visible region?

(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) Brackett series

Q5. Bohr’s model could not explain:

(a) Quantisation of angular momentum
(b) Hydrogen spectrum
(c) Fine structure of spectral lines
(d) Radius of orbits

Q6. The ratio of radii of first three Bohr orbits in hydrogen atom is:

(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 4 : 9
(c) 1 : 3 : 5
(d) 1 : 8 : 27

Q7. Shortest wavelength in Lyman series of hydrogen is (R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹):

(a) 91.2 nm
(b) 121.6 nm
(c) 364.8 nm
(d) 656.3 nm

Q8. Angular momentum of electron in 3rd Bohr orbit is:

(a) h/2π
(b) h/π
(c) 3h/2π
(d) 2h/π

Q9. Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Energy required to excite from n=1 to n=2 is:

(a) 3.4 eV
(b) 10.2 eV
(c) 13.6 eV
(d) 27.2 eV

Q10. Which of the following is a limitation of Bohr’s model?

(a) Explains hydrogen spectrum
(b) Quantisation of angular momentum
(c) Explains radius of orbits
(d) Cannot explain fine structure of spectral lines

Q11. The ratio of velocities of electron in first and second Bohr orbit is:

(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1

Q12. Rydberg formula is used to calculate:

(a) Wavelength of spectral lines
(b) Radius of orbit
(c) Energy of electron
(d) Velocity of electron

Q13. Distance of closest approach in Rutherford experiment is directly proportional to:

(a) Kinetic energy of α-particle
(b) Charge of nucleus
(c) Velocity of α-particle
(d) Mass of α-particle

Q14. The series limit of Balmer series corresponds to transition from:

(a) n = ∞ to n = 2
(b) n = 3 to n = 2
(c) n = ∞ to n = 1
(d) n = 4 to n = 2

Q15. If the energy of electron in n=1 orbit is –13.6 eV, energy in n=4 orbit is:

(a) –13.6 eV
(b) –0.85 eV
(c) –3.4 eV
(d) –1.51 eV

Q16. Which of the following transitions gives maximum energy in hydrogen spectrum?

(a) n=1 to n=2
(b) n=2 to n=3
(c) n=3 to n=4
(d) n=4 to n=5

Q17. The speed of electron in first Bohr orbit is:

(a) 2.18 × 10⁵ m/s
(b) 2.18 × 10⁶ m/s
(c) 2.18 × 10⁷ m/s
(d) 2.18 × 10⁸ m/s

Q18. The number of spectral lines when electron jumps from n=5 to n=1 in hydrogen atom is:

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15

Q19. Rutherford’s experiment could not explain:

(a) Existence of nucleus
(b) Positive charge in centre
(c) Large deflection of α-particles
(d) Stability of atom

Q20. The ratio of wavelengths of first line of Lyman series to first line of Balmer series is:

(a) 5 : 27
(b) 27 : 5
(c) 4 : 9
(d) 9 : 4

22. Nuclei

Chapter 22 Score: 0 / 20

22.1 Introduction

The nucleus is the central core of the atom containing protons and neutrons (collectively called nucleons). It is extremely small (~10⁻¹⁵ m) but contains almost all the mass of the atom.

22.2 Composition of Nucleus

Isotopes: Same Z, different A
Isobars: Same A, different Z
Isotones: Same N, different Z

22.3 Nuclear Size

Radius R = R₀ A¹/³ (R₀ ≈ 1.2 × 10⁻¹⁵ m)

22.4 Nuclear Density

Density ≈ 10¹⁷ kg/m³ (almost constant for all nuclei)

22.5 Nuclear Force

Strong, short-range, charge-independent attractive force between nucleons. Much stronger than electromagnetic force inside the nucleus.

22.6 Mass Defect and Binding Energy

Mass Defect Δm = [Z m_p + (A–Z) m_n – M]

Binding Energy BE = Δm c²

Binding energy per nucleon is maximum near A = 56 (Fe-56).

22.7 Radioactivity

Spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei.
Three types: α-decay, β-decay, γ-decay.

Law of Radioactive Decay: N = N₀ e^{-λt}

Half-life T_{1/2} = 0.693 / λ

Mean Life τ = 1/λ = 1.44 T_{1/2}

22.8 Nuclear Reactions

Nuclear Fission: Heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei + energy (used in nuclear reactors).
Nuclear Fusion: Light nuclei combine to form heavier nucleus + energy (source of energy in stars).


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The radius of a nucleus is proportional to:

(a) A
(b) A^{1/3}
(c) A^{2/3}
(d) √A

Q2. Nuclear density is approximately:

(a) 10³ kg/m³
(b) 10¹⁰ kg/m³
(c) 10¹⁷ kg/m³
(d) 10²³ kg/m³

Q3. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for:

(a) ²H
(b) ⁵⁶Fe
(c) ²³⁵U
(d) ⁴He

Q4. Isotopes of an element have same:

(a) Atomic number
(b) Mass number
(c) Neutron number
(d) Number of neutrons

Q5. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 4 days. After 16 days the fraction of substance left is:

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/16
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/4

Q6. The nuclear force is:

(a) Long range and repulsive
(b) Long range and attractive
(c) Short range and attractive
(d) Short range and repulsive

Q7. Mass defect is converted into:

(a) Charge
(b) Binding energy
(c) Kinetic energy only
(d) Potential energy

Q8. In α-decay, the daughter nucleus has:

(a) Z decreased by 2, A decreased by 4
(b) Z increased by 2, A increased by 4
(c) Z same, A decreased by 4
(d) Z decreased by 1, A same

Q9. The mean life of a radioactive substance is 1.44 times its half-life. This relation is:

(a) τ = 1.44 T_{1/2}
(b) T_{1/2} = 1.44 τ
(c) τ = 0.693 T_{1/2}
(d) Both are same

Q10. In nuclear fission:

(a) Light nuclei combine
(b) Heavy nucleus splits
(c) Binding energy decreases
(d) Mass number increases

Q11. The SI unit of decay constant (λ) is:

(a) s⁻¹
(b) s
(c) kg m/s
(d) J

Q12. Which of the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors?

(a) Uranium
(b) Plutonium
(c) Heavy water / Graphite
(d) Cadmium

Q13. In β⁻ decay, the atomic number of daughter nucleus:

(a) Decreases by 1
(b) Increases by 1
(c) Remains same
(d) Increases by 2

Q14. The source of energy in stars is:

(a) Nuclear fission
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Chemical reaction
(d) Radioactive decay

Q15. Binding energy per nucleon curve shows that:

(a) Fusion releases energy for heavy nuclei
(b) Fission releases energy for light nuclei
(c) Both fusion (light) and fission (heavy) release energy
(d) No energy is released in either

Q16. The relation between half-life and mean life is:

(a) τ = 1.44 T_{1/2}
(b) T_{1/2} = 1.44 τ
(c) τ = 0.693 T_{1/2}
(d) Both are equal

Q17. In γ-decay:

(a) Atomic number changes
(b) Mass number changes
(c) Neither Z nor A changes
(d) Both Z and A change

Q18. The process responsible for energy production in the Sun is:

(a) Nuclear fission
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Radioactive decay
(d) Chemical reaction

Q19. Which of the following is a fissile material?

(a) ²³⁵U
(b) ²³⁸U
(c) ⁴He
(d) ¹²C

Q20. Energy is released in nuclear fusion because:

(a) Mass of product is more
(b) Binding energy per nucleon increases
(c) Binding energy per nucleon decreases
(d) Mass number increases

23. Semiconductor Electronics

Chapter 23 Score: 0 / 20

23.1 Introduction

Semiconductors have conductivity between conductors and insulators. Their conductivity can be controlled by temperature, impurities, and electric field.

23.2 Classification of Solids

Intrinsic Semiconductor: Pure Si or Ge.
Extrinsic Semiconductor: Doped.
• n-type: Pentavalent impurity (e.g., P, As) → majority electrons.
• p-type: Trivalent impurity (e.g., B, In) → majority holes.

23.3 p-n Junction

Formed by joining p-type and n-type semiconductors.
Depletion region forms with barrier potential (~0.7 V for Si, 0.3 V for Ge).

23.4 Semiconductor Diode

Forward Bias: Low resistance, current flows.
Reverse Bias: High resistance, very small reverse saturation current.

23.5 Special Purpose Diodes

23.6 Transistor

npn and pnp types.
Current gain β = I_C / I_B (Common Emitter).
Used as amplifier and switch.

23.7 Logic Gates

AND, OR, NOT, NAND, NOR, XOR.
NAND and NOR are universal gates.


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of electrons and holes are:

(a) Equal
(b) Electrons > holes
(c) Holes > electrons
(d) Zero

Q2. In n-type semiconductor, the majority charge carriers are:

(a) Electrons
(b) Holes
(c) Both equal
(d) Protons

Q3. The barrier potential of a silicon p-n junction diode is approximately:

(a) 0.3 V
(b) 0.7 V
(c) 1.0 V
(d) 2.0 V

Q4. In forward bias of a p-n junction diode, the current is mainly due to:

(a) Majority carriers only
(b) Minority carriers only
(c) Both majority and minority carriers
(d) Depletion region charges

Q5. Zener diode is primarily used as a:

(a) Voltage regulator
(b) Rectifier
(c) Amplifier
(d) Oscillator

Q6. In a transistor, the current gain β in common emitter configuration is:

(a) I_B / I_C
(b) I_C / I_B
(c) I_E / I_B
(d) I_C / I_E

Q7. Which of the following is a universal gate?

(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NAND
(d) NOT

Q8. In reverse bias, the width of depletion layer:

(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Becomes zero

Q9. LED emits light when the diode is:

(a) Forward biased
(b) Reverse biased
(c) Zero biased
(d) In breakdown region

Q10. In common emitter configuration, input is applied between:

(a) Collector and emitter
(b) Base and emitter
(c) Collector and base
(d) Emitter and ground

Q11. The energy gap of a semiconductor is:

(a) 0 eV
(b) 0.1 to 1 eV
(c) Greater than 3 eV
(d) Infinite

Q12. In a p-n junction diode, the reverse saturation current is due to:

(a) Majority carriers
(b) Minority carriers
(c) Both
(d) Depletion layer

Q13. Solar cell works on the principle of:

(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Photovoltaic effect
(c) Thermoelectric effect
(d) Piezoelectric effect

Q14. In a transistor, the emitter is doped:

(a) Heavily
(b) Lightly
(c) Moderately
(d) Not doped

Q15. The truth table of NAND gate is same as:

(a) AND followed by NOT
(b) OR followed by NOT
(c) NOT followed by AND
(d) NOR gate

Q16. Photodiode is used in:

(a) Forward bias
(b) Reverse bias
(c) No bias
(d) Both forward and reverse

Q17. In logic gates, the output of OR gate is 1 when:

(a) Both inputs are 0
(b) One input is 0
(c) At least one input is 1
(d) Both inputs are 1

Q18. The majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are:

(a) Electrons
(b) Holes
(c) Both equal
(d) Protons

Q19. In a transistor, the base region is:

(a) Heavily doped
(b) Moderately doped
(c) Lightly doped and thin
(d) Not doped

Q20. Which of the following is a universal gate?

(a) AND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) NAND gate
(d) NOT gate

24. Communication Systems

Chapter 24 Score: 0 / 20

24.1 Introduction

Communication is the process of transmitting information from one place to another. Modern systems use electromagnetic waves as carrier waves.

24.2 Basic Elements of Communication System

24.3 Bandwidth

Range of frequencies required for transmission.
Speech: ~ 2800 Hz, Music: ~ 20 kHz, TV: ~ 6 MHz.

24.4 Modulation

Superimposing a low-frequency message signal on a high-frequency carrier wave.

Need for Modulation: Long distance transmission, avoid interference, reduce antenna size.

Types: Amplitude Modulation (AM), Frequency Modulation (FM), Phase Modulation (PM).

Modulation index m = Aₘ / A_c (for AM, m ≤ 1).

24.5 Demodulation

Process of recovering the original message signal from the modulated carrier.

24.6 Propagation of EM Waves

24.7 Satellite Communication

Uses geostationary satellites (height ≈ 36,000 km). Uplink and downlink frequencies.

24.8 Modern Communication Systems

Optical fibre communication, Mobile telephony (cellular concept), Internet, Satellite communication.


Practice Questions (20)

Q1. The process of superimposing a low frequency message signal on a high frequency carrier wave is called:

(a) Demodulation
(b) Modulation
(c) Amplification
(d) Rectification

Q2. Modulation is necessary because:

(a) It increases the power of signal
(b) Low frequency signals cannot be transmitted directly
(c) Both (b) and to reduce antenna size
(d) It decreases bandwidth

Q3. In amplitude modulation, the modulation index m is:

(a) Aₘ / A_c
(b) A_c / Aₘ
(c) fₘ / f_c
(d) f_c / fₘ

Q4. Sky wave propagation is suitable for frequencies in the range:

(a) 3–30 kHz
(b) 3–30 MHz
(c) 30–300 MHz
(d) Above 300 MHz

Q5. The height of a geostationary satellite above Earth’s surface is approximately:

(a) 360 km
(b) 3,600 km
(c) 36,000 km
(d) 360,000 km

Q6. In ground wave propagation, the wave follows:

(a) Curvature of Earth
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Straight line
(d) Satellite path

Q7. Optical fibre communication works on the principle of:

(a) Reflection
(b) Total internal reflection
(c) Refraction
(d) Diffraction

Q8. Bandwidth of a TV signal is approximately:

(a) 5 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 6 MHz
(d) 1 GHz

Q9. In frequency modulation (FM), the frequency of carrier wave:

(a) Remains constant
(b) Varies with amplitude of message signal
(c) Varies with frequency of message signal
(d) Becomes zero

Q10. Demodulation is the process of:

(a) Recovering original message signal
(b) Increasing frequency
(c) Amplifying signal
(d) Modulating signal

Q11. Critical frequency is related to:

(a) Ground wave
(b) Sky wave
(c) Space wave
(d) Satellite

Q12. In satellite communication, the uplink frequency is:

(a) Higher than downlink frequency
(b) Lower than downlink frequency
(c) Same as downlink
(d) Not used

Q13. Which propagation mode is used for TV transmission?

(a) Ground wave
(b) Sky wave
(c) Space wave
(d) All modes

Q14. The main advantage of optical fibre communication is:

(a) Low cost
(b) Very high bandwidth and low loss
(c) Easy installation
(d) High power requirement

Q15. In AM, the sideband frequencies are:

(a) f_c ± f_m
(b) f_c and f_m
(c) Only f_c
(d) Only f_m

Q16. The cellular concept is used in:

(a) Satellite communication
(b) Mobile telephony
(c) Optical fibre
(d) Radio broadcasting

Q17. Maximum usable frequency (MUF) is related to:

(a) Ground wave
(b) Sky wave
(c) Space wave
(d) Satellite

Q18. In a communication system, the transducer converts:

(a) Message signal into electrical signal
(b) Electrical signal into sound
(c) Modulated wave into carrier
(d) Carrier into message

Q19. Which of the following has the highest bandwidth?

(a) Telephone signal
(b) FM radio
(c) Optical fibre
(d) AM radio

Q20. The main advantage of frequency modulation over amplitude modulation is:

(a) Less bandwidth required
(b) Better noise immunity
(c) Simpler circuit
(d) Lower power consumption
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