Living organisms show unique characteristics that distinguish them from non-living things. These include:
Note: No single feature is sufficient to define life completely. Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are not living.
The number of known and described species is approximately 1.7–1.8 million. The actual number is much higher.
Taxonomy is the science of classification. The hierarchical arrangement is:
Kingdom → Phylum (Division in plants) → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species
Species is the basic (smallest) unit of classification. A species is a group of organisms capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring.
Proposed by Carolus Linnaeus. Each organism is given a scientific name with two words:
Examples: Mangifera indica (Mango), Homo sapiens (Human), Triticum aestivum (Wheat).
Viruses, viroids and prions are not placed in any kingdom.
They can survive in extreme conditions (extreme temperature, salinity, marshy areas).
Q1. The basic unit of classification is:
Q2. Binomial nomenclature was proposed by:
Q3. Five kingdom classification was proposed by:
Q4. Which of the following is a prokaryote?
Q5. The scientific name of mango is:
Q6. Compared to genus, species is:
Q7. Growth cannot be considered as a defining property of living organisms because:
Q8. In five kingdom classification, viruses, viroids and prions are:
Q9. Lichens represent symbiotic relationship between:
Q10. The number of known and described species is approximately:
Q11. Archaebacteria can live in:
Q12. Nuclear membrane is absent in:
Q13. Which kingdom has maximum nutritional diversity?
Q14. Chlorella and Chlamydomonas belong to:
Q15. Smallest taxon of classification is:
Q16. Reproduction cannot be an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms because:
Q17. The term 'systematics' refers to:
Q18. Which of the following is not a defining feature of life?
Q19. Taxonomic category 'order' is between:
Q20. The scientific name of wheat is:
Biological classification is the scientific arrangement of organisms into groups based on similarities and differences. It helps in the study of biodiversity and evolutionary relationships.
Divided living organisms into **Plantae** and **Animalia**. This system had limitations (e.g., bacteria, fungi, and unicellular organisms were not properly placed).
Based on cell structure, body organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction, and phylogenetic relationships.
| Kingdom | Cell Type | Nutrition | Key Features |
|---|---|---|---|
| Monera | Prokaryotic | Autotrophic/Heterotrophic | Bacteria, Archaebacteria, Cyanobacteria |
| Protista | Eukaryotic (unicellular) | Autotrophic/Heterotrophic | Amoeba, Euglena, Paramecium, Diatoms |
| Fungi | Eukaryotic | Heterotrophic (saprophytic/parasitic) | Chitinous cell wall, mycelium, sporangia |
| Plantae | Eukaryotic | Autotrophic | Cellulosic cell wall, alternation of generations |
| Animalia | Eukaryotic | Heterotrophic | No cell wall, multicellular, holozoic nutrition |
Prokaryotes. Includes bacteria (eubacteria) and archaebacteria. Archaebacteria live in extreme conditions. Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells (no cell wall).
Unicellular eukaryotes. Includes chrysophytes (diatoms), dinoflagellates, euglenoids, slime moulds, and protozoans.
Heterotrophic, chitinous wall. Classes: Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes, Deuteromycetes. Lichens = symbiotic association of algae and fungi.
Viruses are obligate parasites (not placed in any kingdom). Viroids are RNA particles. Prions are proteinaceous infectious particles.
Q1. Five kingdom classification was proposed by:
Q2. Which kingdom has maximum nutritional diversity?
Q3. Archaebacteria can live in:
Q4. The smallest living cells which lack cell wall are:
Q5. Chlamydomonas belongs to kingdom:
Q6. Cell wall of fungi is made up of:
Q7. Lichens represent symbiotic relationship between:
Q8. Viroids are:
Q9. Bacteria belong to kingdom:
Q10. Deuteromycetes are commonly called:
Q11. Nuclear membrane is absent in:
Q12. Which of the following is a prokaryote?
Q13. The scientific name of bread mould is:
Q14. Viruses are:
Q15. Which of the following is not a fungus?
Q16. The mode of nutrition in fungi is:
Q17. Slime moulds belong to kingdom:
Q18. The cell wall of bacteria is made up of:
Q19. Which of the following is a viral disease?
Q20. Prions are:
Plant kingdom includes autotrophic, multicellular, eukaryotic organisms with cellulosic cell wall. They show alternation of generations.
Simple, thalloid, autotrophic, aquatic. Classified into Chlorophyceae (green), Phaeophyceae (brown), Rhodophyceae (red). Useful in food, agar, iodine, etc.
Amphibians of plant kingdom. First terrestrial plants. Dominant gametophyte, dependent sporophyte. Includes mosses and liverworts. Help in soil formation and prevent soil erosion.
First vascular land plants. Dominant sporophyte, independent gametophyte. Includes ferns, horsetails. Used as ornamentals and in medicine.
Naked seed plants. Vascular, perennial, woody. Examples: Pinus, Cycas. Seeds not enclosed in fruit. Important for timber, resins, paper.
Flowering plants with seeds enclosed in fruit. Most advanced and dominant group. Divided into Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.
Life cycle shows haploid gametophyte and diploid sporophyte generations alternating with each other.
Q1. Which of the following is called amphibians of the plant kingdom?
Q2. Red algae belong to class:
Q3. Dominant phase in the life cycle of bryophytes is:
Q4. First vascular land plants are:
Q5. Naked seeded plants belong to:
Q6. Green algae belong to class:
Q7. Plants with seeds enclosed in fruit are:
Q8. Which group has well-developed vascular tissue but no seeds?
Q9. Phycoerythrin pigment is found in:
Q10. In bryophytes, the sporophyte is:
Q11. Heterospory is found in:
Q12. Which plants require water for fertilisation?
Q13. Agar-agar is obtained from:
Q14. Most advanced and dominant group of plants is:
Q15. Which of the following has seeds but no fruits?
Q16. alternation of generations is found in:
Q17. Food is stored as mannitol in:
Q18. First embryophytes are:
Q19. Double fertilisation is a characteristic feature of:
Q20. Which of the following is a living fossil?
Animals are classified on the basis of:
Marine, asymmetrical or radially symmetrical, cellular level of organisation, canal system, spicules. Examples: Sycon, Spongilla.
Radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue level, cnidoblasts, polyp and medusa forms. Examples: Hydra, Jellyfish, Corals.
Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, acoelomate, flame cells for excretion. Examples: Planaria, Taenia, Fasciola.
Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, pseudocoelomate, complete digestive tract. Examples: Ascaris, Wuchereria.
Metamerically segmented, coelomate, closed circulatory system. Examples: Earthworm, Leech, Nereis.
Largest phylum, jointed appendages, chitinous exoskeleton, open circulatory system. Examples: Cockroach, Butterfly, Prawn.
Soft-bodied, mantle and shell, muscular foot. Examples: Pila, Octopus, Unio.
Spiny-skinned, water vascular system, radial symmetry in adults. Examples: Starfish, Sea urchin, Brittle star.
Small group with proboscis, collar and trunk. Example: Balanoglossus.
Notocord, dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal gill slits, post-anal tail. Divided into Urochordata, Cephalochordata and Vertebrata.
Q1. The largest phylum in the animal kingdom is:
Q2. Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of:
Q3. Jointed appendages are found in phylum:
Q4. Notochord is present in phylum:
Q5. Flame cells are excretory organs of:
Q6. Radially symmetrical and diploblastic animals belong to phylum:
Q7. True segmentation (metamerism) is found in:
Q8. Open circulatory system is present in:
Q9. Example of Urochordata is:
Q10. Mantle and shell are characteristic features of:
Q11. Spiny skinned animals belong to phylum:
Q12. Pseudocoelomate animals are found in phylum:
Q13. Canal system is present in phylum:
Q14. Closed circulatory system is found in:
Q15. Example of a urochordate is:
Q16. Animals without true coelom are called:
Q17. Which phylum shows radial symmetry in adult stage?
Q18. Presence of notochord, dorsal hollow nerve cord and pharyngeal gill slits are features of:
Q19. Example of a cephalochordate is:
Q20. Leech belongs to phylum:
Morphology is the study of external form and structure of plants. Flowering plants (Angiosperms) show great variation in morphology.
Root system develops from radicle. Functions: anchorage, absorption of water and minerals, storage. Types: Tap root (dicots), Fibrous root (monocots). Modifications: Storage (carrot, turnip), Prop roots, Pneumatophores.
Stem develops from plumule. Functions: support, conduction, storage. Modifications: Underground (potato, ginger), Aerial (tendrils, thorns), Sub-aerial (runners, stolons).
Leaf is a lateral outgrowth from stem. Parts: Leaf base, Petiole, Lamina. Venation: Reticulate (dicots), Parallel (monocots). Modifications: Tendrils, Spines, Phyllodes.
Reproductive unit. Parts: Calyx (sepals), Corolla (petals), Androecium (stamens), Gynoecium (carpels). Symmetry: Actinomorphic, Zygomorphic. Types: Hypogynous, Perigynous, Epigynous.
Mature ovary after fertilisation. Types: Simple, Aggregate, Multiple. Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilisation (banana, seedless grapes).
Contains embryo. Dicot seed: Two cotyledons (pea, bean). Monocot seed: One cotyledon (maize, wheat). Structure includes seed coat, hilum, micropyle, embryo.
Q1. Tap root system is found in:
Q2. Parallel venation is characteristic of:
Q3. Potato is a modification of:
Q4. The edible part of mango is:
Q5. In pea, the placentation is:
Q6. Tendrils are modification of:
Q7. In sunflower, the inflorescence is:
Q8. The fruit of tomato is:
Q9. In Fabaceae, the stamens are:
Q10. Ginger is a modification of:
Q11. The fruit of coconut is:
Q12. In maize, the venation is:
Q13. Thorn is a modification of:
Q14. The family having vexillary aestivation is:
Q15. The edible part of onion is:
Q16. In which family are the flowers trimerous?
Q17. Prop roots are found in:
Q18. The fruit developing from a superior ovary is:
Q19. Aleurone layer is found in:
Q20. Which of the following is a modified leaf?
Anatomy is the study of internal structure of plants. It helps in understanding the functional aspects of different tissues and organs.
Dicot root: Epiblema, cortex, endodermis (Casparian strip), pericycle, vascular bundles (radial). Monocot root: Polyarch xylem, pith present.
Dicot stem: Vascular bundles arranged in a ring, conjoint collateral, open. Monocot stem: Scattered vascular bundles, closed, sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
Dicot leaf: Dorsiventral, palisade and spongy parenchyma. Monocot leaf: Isobilateral, bulliform cells, parallel venation.
Occurs in dicot stems and roots due to vascular cambium and cork cambium. Forms annual rings, heartwood, sapwood, bark. Important for timber production.
Q1. Casparian strip is found in:
Q2. Vascular bundles in dicot stem are:
Q3. Bulliform cells are found in:
Q4. The tissue responsible for secondary growth is:
Q5. Heartwood is:
Q6. Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundles are found in:
Q7. Annual rings are formed due to:
Q8. In monocot stem, vascular bundles are:
Q9. The waxy layer on epidermis is called:
Q10. Companion cells are found in:
Q11. Pith is large and well developed in:
Q12. The dead mechanical tissue is:
Q13. In dicot leaf, the mesophyll is differentiated into:
Q14. Bark includes:
Q15. Tracheids and vessels are found in:
Q16. The vascular bundle in monocot stem is:
Q17. Companion cells are associated with:
Q18. The ground tissue in dicot stem is:
Q19. Periderm includes:
Q20. The vascular cambium is:
Multicellular animals show hierarchical organisation – cells, tissues, organs and organ systems. This chapter deals with the morphology and anatomy of earthworm, cockroach and frog.
Terrestrial, hermaphrodite, metamerically segmented. Has clitellum, setae, typhlosole. Closed circulatory system, nephridia for excretion, ventral nerve cord. Important for soil fertility (vermicomposting).
Brown, cursorial, nocturnal. Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen. Open circulatory system, Malpighian tubules for excretion, tracheal system for respiration. Incomplete metamorphosis.
Amphibian, poikilotherm. Body has moist skin, webbed limbs. Digestive system includes liver, pancreas. Respiratory organs: skin, lungs, buccopharyngeal cavity. Sexes separate (sexual dimorphism). Metamorphosis present.
Earthworm, cockroach and frog show increasing complexity in organ systems from annelids to arthropods to chordates.
Q1. Earthworm belongs to phylum:
Q2. Clitellum in earthworm is present in segments:
Q3. Typhlosole in earthworm is a part of:
Q4. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs of:
Q5. Open circulatory system is found in:
Q6. In cockroach, the respiratory organ is:
Q7. Frog is a:
Q8. The number of chambers in frog heart is:
Q9. Setae in earthworm help in:
Q10. Cockroach has how many pairs of wings?
Q11. Earthworm is:
Q12. Cockroach shows:
Q13. Frog respires through:
Q14. Closed circulatory system is found in:
Q15. Number of spiracles in cockroach is:
Q16. Frog shows:
Q17. Which of the following has typhlosole?
Q18. Frog is:
Q19. Mosaic vision is found in:
Q20. Which of the following is ureotelic?
Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life. All organisms are made of cells. The study of cell is called Cytology.
Proposed by Schleiden and Schwann (1838-39). Modified by Virchow. States that all living organisms are made of cells, cell is the basic unit of life, and all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
Primitive cells without true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Includes bacteria and cyanobacteria (blue-green algae). Have nucleoid, 70S ribosomes, and cell wall containing peptidoglycan.
Advanced cells with true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Found in plants, animals, fungi and protists.
Control centre of the cell. Contains chromatin, nucleolus and nuclear membrane with nuclear pores.
Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles and true nucleus, while eukaryotes have them.
Q1. The basic unit of life is:
Q2. Cell theory was proposed by:
Q3. Prokaryotic cells lack:
Q4. The powerhouse of the cell is:
Q5. 70S ribosomes are found in:
Q6. Suicidal bags of the cell are:
Q7. The site of protein synthesis is:
Q8. Chloroplasts are found in:
Q9. Nucleus was discovered by:
Q10. The fluid matrix of mitochondria is called:
Q11. 80S ribosomes are found in:
Q12. The control centre of the cell is:
Q13. Chromoplasts contain:
Q14. The number of mitochondria in a cell depends on:
Q15. Nucleolus is the site of:
Q16. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes?
Q17. The fluid inside chloroplast is called:
Q18. Centrioles are found in:
Q19. The term 'protoplasm' was coined by:
Q20. Which cell organelle is called the 'suicidal bag'?
Biomolecules are the organic compounds present in living organisms. The four major classes are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones. Classified as monosaccharides (glucose, fructose), oligosaccharides (maltose, sucrose) and polysaccharides (starch, glycogen, cellulose). Main source of energy.
Polymers of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. Functions: enzymes, hormones, structural (collagen), transport (haemoglobin), defensive (antibodies). Denaturation destroys secondary and tertiary structure.
Insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. Includes fats, oils, phospholipids, steroids (cholesterol). Serve as storage of energy and structural component of cell membrane.
Polymers of nucleotides. Two types: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). DNA is the genetic material in most organisms. Nucleotide = Nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate.
Biocatalysts, mostly proteins. Highly specific, increase rate of reaction. Named by adding suffix '-ase'. Factors affecting activity: temperature, pH, substrate concentration. Have active site.
Vitamins are accessory food factors. Classified as fat-soluble (A, D, E, K) and water-soluble (B-complex, C). Deficiency causes various diseases (e.g., scurvy by Vitamin C deficiency).
Q1. The most abundant biomolecule on earth is:
Q2. The monomer of protein is:
Q3. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
Q4. The bond linking two amino acids is called:
Q5. The storage polysaccharide in animals is:
Q6. The sugar present in DNA is:
Q7. Enzymes are:
Q8. The nitrogen base absent in DNA is:
Q9. Which of the following is a phospholipid?
Q10. The secondary structure of protein is due to:
Q11. The sugar present in RNA is:
Q12. Which vitamin is fat-soluble?
Q13. The functional unit of enzyme is called:
Q14. Chitin is a:
Q15. The backbone of nucleic acid is made of:
Q16. Which biomolecule is called the 'reserve food' in animals?
Q17. The quaternary structure of protein is found in:
Q18. Which of the following is not a nucleotide?
Q19. The vitamin whose deficiency causes scurvy is:
Q20. Which biomolecule forms the major component of cell membrane?
All living organisms grow and reproduce. Growth occurs due to cell division. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome and divides into two daughter cells is called cell cycle.
Cell cycle consists of two main phases:
Equational division. Occurs in somatic cells. Phases: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase. Results in two genetically identical daughter cells. Important for growth and repair.
Reductional division. Occurs in reproductive cells. Two divisions (Meiosis I and II). Results in four haploid gametes. Introduces genetic variation through crossing over and independent assortment.
Mitosis: Growth, repair, asexual reproduction. Meiosis: Formation of gametes, maintenance of chromosome number across generations, genetic diversity.
Q1. The phase in which DNA replication occurs is:
Q2. Mitosis is also known as:
Q3. The longest phase of cell cycle is:
Q4. Synapsis occurs during:
Q5. The number of chromosomes is reduced to half in:
Q6. Crossing over occurs in:
Q7. The stage at which chromosomes are arranged at the equator is:
Q8. In which phase does centromere divide?
Q9. The number of daughter cells formed in meiosis is:
Q10. G0 phase is:
Q11. Chiasmata are formed during:
Q12. The correct sequence of mitosis is:
Q13. Crossing over leads to:
Q14. In which phase does chromosome condensation occur?
Q15. The stage between two meiotic divisions is called:
Q16. Amitosis is found in:
Q17. The number of chromatids in a chromosome at metaphase is:
Q18. Meiosis occurs in:
Q19. The term 'karyokinesis' refers to:
Q20. Which phase is known as the 'best stage' to study chromosome morphology?
Transport in plants involves movement of water, minerals, and organic solutes over long distances. It occurs through vascular tissues — xylem and phloem.
Water potential (ψ) = Solute potential (ψs) + Pressure potential (ψp). Osmosis is the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane.
Transpiration pull and cohesion-tension theory explain ascent of sap in xylem. Mass flow hypothesis explains translocation in phloem.
Loss of water vapour from aerial parts. Types: Stomatal, Cuticular, Lenticular. Factors affecting transpiration: light, temperature, humidity, wind. Significance: cooling, ascent of sap, mineral absorption.
Mineral ions are absorbed actively by roots. Transported through xylem along with water.
Food (sucrose) is transported from source (leaves) to sink (roots, fruits) by mass flow.
Q1. The movement of water through a semi-permeable membrane is called:
Q2. The force responsible for ascent of sap is:
Q3. Transpiration is highest during:
Q4. The pathway of water from soil to xylem is:
Q5. The tissue responsible for translocation of food is:
Q6. Guttation occurs through:
Q7. The pressure created by transpiration pull is:
Q8. Which of the following is an anti-transpirant?
Q9. The most acceptable theory for ascent of sap is:
Q10. Phloem transports:
Q11. Wilting of plants occurs due to:
Q12. The direction of translocation in phloem is:
Q13. Root pressure is responsible for:
Q14. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by:
Q15. Which of the following is an antitranspirant?
Q16. The process of imbibition is responsible for:
Q17. The direction of translocation in phloem is mainly:
Q18. Which tissue is responsible for radial conduction of water?
Q19. The theory explaining translocation in phloem is:
Q20. Stomata open when guard cells are:
Plants require mineral elements for their growth and development. These minerals are absorbed from the soil in the form of ions.
17 elements are essential for plants. Classified as:
Nitrogen: Component of proteins and nucleic acids. Phosphorus: In ATP and nucleic acids. Potassium: Maintains turgidity. Iron: In cytochrome and chlorophyll synthesis. Boron: Pollen germination.
Deficiency causes chlorosis, necrosis, stunted growth, premature leaf fall, etc. Mobile elements show deficiency in older leaves; immobile elements in young leaves.
Mineral ions are absorbed actively by roots using energy (ATP). Two phases: Initial rapid uptake (passive) and slow uptake (active).
Atmospheric nitrogen is fixed by nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium, Azotobacter, blue-green algae). Nitrification, ammonification and denitrification complete the cycle.
Symbiotic (Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes) and non-symbiotic. Nitrogenase enzyme converts N₂ to NH₃.
Q1. The element which is a component of chlorophyll is:
Q2. Nitrogen fixation is carried out by:
Q3. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen appear first in:
Q4. Which element is a constituent of nitrogenase enzyme?
Q5. The technique of growing plants in nutrient solution is called:
Q6. Which mineral is required for photolysis of water?
Q7. The bacteria living in root nodules of legumes are:
Q8. Chlorosis is caused due to deficiency of:
Q9. Plants absorb nitrogen mainly in the form of:
Q10. Which element is a constituent of chlorophyll?
Q11. Necrosis is caused due to deficiency of:
Q12. Minerals are absorbed by roots mainly through:
Q13. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation occurs in:
Q14. Deficiency symptoms of mobile elements appear first in:
Q15. Leghemoglobin is present in:
Q16. The bacteria that oxidise ammonia to nitrite are:
Q17. Hydroponics is used to study:
Q18. Which element helps in opening and closing of stomata?
Q19. Which element is a component of ferredoxin?
Q20. The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia is called:
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants convert light energy into chemical energy. It is the basis of life on Earth.
Joseph Priestley, Jan Ingenhousz, Julius von Sachs, and T.W. Engelmann contributed significantly to understanding photosynthesis.
Occurs in chloroplasts. Light reactions in thylakoid membrane, dark reactions in stroma.
Chlorophyll a (reaction centre), Chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls, Carotenoids. Absorption spectrum and action spectrum.
Photophosphorylation (cyclic and non-cyclic). Water splitting (photolysis), formation of ATP and NADPH.
Also called C3 pathway. CO₂ fixation by RuBisCO, reduction phase, regeneration of RuBP. 3 ATP and 2 NADPH per CO₂ fixed.
Hatch-Slack pathway. Occurs in C4 plants (maize, sugarcane). Minimises photorespiration, high efficiency in hot climates.
Occurs in C3 plants under high O₂ and low CO₂. Wastes energy, no sugar produced.
Light, CO₂ concentration, temperature, water. Law of limiting factors.
Q1. The pigment that acts as the reaction centre is:
Q2. C3 cycle is also known as:
Q3. Photorespiration occurs in:
Q4. The first stable product of C3 cycle is:
Q5. Kranz anatomy is found in:
Q6. The source of oxygen released during photosynthesis is:
Q7. RuBisCO enzyme is present in:
Q8. In C4 plants, the first stable product is:
Q9. The primary CO₂ acceptor in C3 plants is:
Q10. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation produces:
Q11. The site of light reaction is:
Q12. CAM plants fix CO₂ during:
Q13. Which of the following is not required for photosynthesis?
Q14. The enzyme responsible for CO₂ fixation is:
Q15. In C4 plants, photorespiration is:
Q16. The number of ATP molecules required to fix one molecule of CO₂ in Calvin cycle is:
Q17. Which scientist showed that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis?
Q18. The dark reaction occurs in:
Q19. Which of the following is a C4 plant?
Q20. The law of limiting factors in photosynthesis was proposed by:
Respiration is a catabolic process in which stored food is oxidised to release energy. It occurs in all living cells, both in light and dark.
Complete oxidation of organic food into CO₂ and H₂O with release of energy. It is of two types: Aerobic and Anaerobic.
Occurs in cytoplasm. Glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid. Net gain: 2 ATP and 2 NADH. Common phase for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
In absence of oxygen. Two types: Alcoholic fermentation (yeast) and Lactic acid fermentation (muscles). No net gain of ATP beyond glycolysis.
Pyruvate enters mitochondria. Includes Krebs cycle (in matrix) and Electron Transport Chain (on inner mitochondrial membrane).
Occurs in mitochondrial matrix. Complete oxidation of acetyl CoA. Produces 2 CO₂, 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂ and 1 GTP per acetyl CoA.
Occurs on inner mitochondrial membrane. Electrons from NADH and FADH₂ pass through carriers and finally to O₂ forming water. Oxidative phosphorylation produces ATP.
Ratio of volume of CO₂ evolved to volume of O₂ consumed. RQ = 1 for carbohydrates, >1 for organic acids, <1 for fats.
Respiratory pathway is amphibolic as it provides intermediates for synthesis of other biomolecules.
Q1. The common phase between aerobic and anaerobic respiration is:
Q2. Net gain of ATP in glycolysis is:
Q3. Krebs cycle occurs in:
Q4. Electron Transport System is located in:
Q5. RQ value of 1 is obtained when the respiratory substrate is:
Q6. The end product of anaerobic respiration in yeast is:
Q7. Number of ATP molecules produced from one molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration is:
Q8. The first product of Krebs cycle is:
Q9. Cytochromes are present in:
Q10. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is more than one in case of:
Q11. The site of glycolysis is:
Q12. In lactic acid fermentation, the end product is:
Q13. The number of CO₂ molecules released in one Krebs cycle is:
Q14. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in:
Q15. The respiratory substrate with lowest RQ value is:
Q16. Terminal electron acceptor in ETS is:
Q17. The number of ATP produced from one NADH in ETS is:
Q18. Fermentation occurs in:
Q19. Which of the following is an amphibolic pathway?
Q20. The final acceptor of electrons in aerobic respiration is:
Growth is an irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ, its parts or even of an individual cell. Development is the sum of growth and differentiation.
Three phases: Meristematic (cell division), Elongation (cell enlargement), Maturation (cell differentiation).
Arithmetic growth and Geometric growth. Sigmoid growth curve. Relative growth rate.
Water, oxygen, nutrients, temperature, light. Water is the most important external factor.
Chemical substances produced by plants that regulate growth and development. Classified as promoters and inhibitors.
Promote cell elongation, apical dominance, rooting. First discovered PGR. Synthetic auxin: IAA, IBA, NAA.
Promote stem elongation, bolting, seed germination, breaking dormancy. Discovered from "bakanae" disease of rice.
Promote cell division, delay senescence, overcome apical dominance. Zeatin is the most common cytokinin.
Gaseous hormone. Promotes fruit ripening, senescence, abscission. Inhibits elongation.
Stress hormone. Promotes seed dormancy, stomatal closure, inhibits growth. Antagonist to gibberellins.
Photoperiodism: Response to relative length of day and night. Vernalisation: Promotion of flowering by low temperature.
Q1. The irreversible permanent increase in size is called:
Q2. The hormone responsible for apical dominance is:
Q3. Which hormone is known as stress hormone?
Q4. The gaseous plant hormone is:
Q5. Bolting is promoted by:
Q6. The first phase of growth is:
Q7. Which hormone delays senescence?
Q8. The site of action of auxin is:
Q9. Vernalisation is:
Q10. Which hormone promotes fruit ripening?
Q11. Geometric growth is represented by:
Q12. Richmond-Lang effect is shown by:
Q13. The hormone used in tissue culture for shoot multiplication is:
Q14. Senescence is promoted by:
Q15. The most widely used PGR in agriculture is:
Q16. Short day plants flower when:
Q17. The hormone that induces parthenocarpy is:
Q18. Which of the following shows Richmond-Lang effect?
Q19. The growth curve in plants is generally:
Q20. The hormone used for breaking seed dormancy is:
Digestion is the process of breaking down complex food into simpler absorbable forms. Absorption is the process by which digested food passes into the blood or lymph.
Human digestive system consists of alimentary canal (mouth to anus) and digestive glands (salivary glands, liver, pancreas).
Amylase (starch), Pepsin/Trypsin (proteins), Lipase (fats), Nucleases (nucleic acids), Maltase/Sucrase/Lactase (disaccharides).
Occurs mainly in small intestine. Monosaccharides and amino acids via active transport, fatty acids and glycerol via micelles into lacteals.
Jaundice, Vomiting, Diarrhoea, Constipation, Indigestion, PEM (Protein Energy Malnutrition) – Kwashiorkor and Marasmus.
Q1. The process of breaking down complex food into simpler forms is called:
Q2. Salivary amylase acts on:
Q3. The enzyme pepsin acts in:
Q4. The largest gland in the human body is:
Q5. Bile is secreted by:
Q6. The end product of protein digestion is:
Q7. Villi are present in:
Q8. The hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric juice is:
Q9. Emulsification of fats is done by:
Q10. Kwashiorkor is caused due to deficiency of:
Q11. The pH of gastric juice is:
Q12. Lacteals absorb:
Q13. The enzyme that converts trypsinogen to trypsin is:
Q14. Marasmus is caused due to deficiency of:
Q15. The function of bile is:
Q16. Pancreatic juice contains all enzymes except:
Q17. The absorption of vitamin B12 requires:
Q18. Peristalsis occurs in:
Q19. The pH in the small intestine is:
Q20. Jaundice is caused due to:
Breathing is the process of exchange of O₂ from the atmosphere with CO₂ produced by the cells. It involves two stages: inspiration and expiration.
Humans have lungs as the primary respiratory organ. Respiratory system includes nostrils, nasal chamber, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli.
Inspiration: Diaphragm contracts and flattens, thoracic volume increases, pressure decreases. Expiration: Diaphragm relaxes, thoracic volume decreases, pressure increases.
Occurs in alveoli by simple diffusion. Partial pressure of O₂ is higher in alveolar air than in blood, so O₂ diffuses into blood. CO₂ diffuses from blood to alveoli.
O₂ is transported mainly by haemoglobin as oxyhaemoglobin. CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ions (70%), carbamino-haemoglobin (20-25%) and dissolved form (7%).
Controlled by respiratory rhythm centre in medulla oblongata and pneumotaxic centre in pons. Chemoreceptors detect changes in CO₂ and H⁺ levels.
Asthma, Emphysema, Occupational respiratory disorders (silicosis, asbestosis), Pneumonia, Bronchitis.
Q1. The process of intake of oxygen and release of CO₂ is called:
Q2. The site of gaseous exchange in lungs is:
Q3. The most important factor for inspiration is:
Q4. Haemoglobin has maximum affinity for:
Q5. The respiratory pigment in humans is:
Q6. Bohr effect is related to:
Q7. The volume of air inspired or expired in one normal breath is called:
Q8. Asthma is caused due to:
Q9. The centre that controls respiration is located in:
Q10. Most of the CO₂ is transported in blood as:
Q11. The residual volume of lungs is:
Q12. Emphysema is characterised by:
Q13. Haldane effect is related to:
Q14. The amount of air remaining in lungs after forced expiration is called:
Q15. Which of the following increases breathing rate?
Q16. The total lung capacity is:
Q17. Pneumotaxic centre is located in:
Q18. Silicosis is an example of:
Q19. The percentage of O₂ transported by haemoglobin is:
Q20. The vital capacity of lungs is:
Body fluids include blood and lymph. They help in transport of nutrients, gases, hormones and waste materials. Circulation is the movement of these fluids.
Fluid connective tissue. Composed of plasma and formed elements (RBCs, WBCs, platelets). Functions: transport, defence, clotting, regulation of pH and temperature.
ABO and Rh systems. ABO: A, B, AB, O. Rh factor: Positive or negative. Important for blood transfusion and pregnancy.
Colourless fluid derived from tissue fluid. Contains lymphocytes. Functions: transport of fats, defence, returns proteins and fluid to blood.
Human heart is four-chambered (2 atria, 2 ventricles). Double circulation: pulmonary and systemic. Cardiac cycle includes systole and diastole.
Records electrical activity of heart. P-wave (atrial systole), QRS complex (ventricular systole), T-wave (ventricular diastole).
Hypertension, Coronary artery disease, Angina pectoris, Heart failure, Atherosclerosis.
Q1. The fluid connective tissue is:
Q2. Universal donor blood group is:
Q3. The pacemaker of the heart is:
Q4. Haemoglobin is present in:
Q5. Double circulation is found in:
Q6. Rh factor was discovered in:
Q7. The QRS complex in ECG represents:
Q8. The most abundant plasma protein is:
Q9. Pulmonary circulation starts from:
Q10. Lymph is also called:
Q11. Universal recipient blood group is:
Q12. The average life span of RBCs is:
Q13. The valve present between right atrium and right ventricle is:
Q14. Hypertension is also called:
Q15. The instrument used to measure blood pressure is:
Q16. Blood clotting protein is:
Q17. The systemic circulation starts from:
Q18. Atherosclerosis is caused by deposition of:
Q19. The normal cardiac cycle duration is approximately:
Q20. The normal blood pressure in a healthy adult is:
Excretion is the biological process of removal of harmful nitrogenous metabolic wastes from the body. The main excretory product in humans is urea.
Consists of a pair of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra. Kidneys are the main excretory organs.
Each kidney has outer cortex and inner medulla. Functional unit is nephron (about 1 million per kidney). Nephron consists of Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus, PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT and collecting duct.
Three steps: Glomerular filtration, Tubular reabsorption, Tubular secretion. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about 125 ml/min.
Controlled by ADH (vasopressin), aldosterone, ANF and renin-angiotensin system. ADH increases water reabsorption. Aldosterone increases Na⁺ reabsorption.
Lungs (CO₂ and water), Liver (bile pigments), Skin (sweat), Large intestine (some salts).
Renal calculi (kidney stones), Glomerulonephritis, Uraemia, Renal failure. Haemodialysis is used in kidney failure.
Q1. The main excretory product in humans is:
Q2. The functional unit of kidney is:
Q3. Glomerular filtration occurs in:
Q4. ADH is also called:
Q5. The main function of Loop of Henle is:
Q6. Uraemia is:
Q7. The hormone that increases Na⁺ reabsorption is:
Q8. Haemodialysis is used in case of:
Q9. The yellow colour of urine is due to:
Q10. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy person is about:
Q11. The ascending limb of Loop of Henle is:
Q12. Counter current mechanism occurs in:
Q13. Kidney stones are also called:
Q14. ANF is secreted by:
Q15. The pH of human urine is usually:
Q16. Which part of nephron is impermeable to water?
Q17. The hormone that decreases blood pressure is:
Q18. Dialysis fluid is used in haemodialysis to:
Q19. The yellow pigment in urine is:
Q20. The process of passing urine is called:
Locomotion is the voluntary movement of an organism from one place to another. Movement is the change in position of body parts. Both are essential for survival.
Divided into axial skeleton (skull, vertebral column, rib cage) and appendicular skeleton (limbs, pectoral and pelvic girdles). Total 206 bones in adult human.
Points of contact between bones. Types: Fibrous (immovable), Cartilaginous (slightly movable), Synovial (freely movable – ball & socket, hinge, pivot, gliding).
Three types: Skeletal (striated, voluntary), Smooth (non-striated, involuntary), Cardiac (striated, involuntary).
Sliding filament theory. Actin and myosin filaments slide over each other. Requires Ca²⁺ ions, ATP and troponin-tropomyosin complex. Neuromuscular junction releases acetylcholine.
Myasthenia gravis, Muscular dystrophy, Tetany, Arthritis (osteoarthritis, rheumatoid), Gout, Osteoporosis.
Q1. The movement of leucocytes is an example of:
Q2. Total number of bones in adult human skeleton is:
Q3. The movable joint between skull bones is:
Q4. The functional unit of contraction in skeletal muscle is:
Q5. Sliding filament theory was proposed by:
Q6. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?
Q7. Ball and socket joint is present in:
Q8. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting:
Q9. The number of bones in axial skeleton is:
Q10. ATP is required for:
Q11. Hinge joint is present in:
Q12. The protein that masks active sites on actin is:
Q13. Gout is caused by accumulation of:
Q14. Cardiac muscles are:
Q15. The number of bones in appendicular skeleton is:
Q16. Acetylcholine is released at:
Q17. Osteoporosis is characterised by:
Q18. The protein present in thick filament is:
Q19. Tetany is caused due to deficiency of:
Q20. The striated appearance of skeletal muscle is due to:
Neural control and coordination is provided by the nervous system and endocrine system. Nervous system is faster and uses electrical impulses while endocrine system is slower and uses chemical messengers (hormones).
Divided into Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS). CNS includes brain and spinal cord. PNS includes cranial and spinal nerves.
Neuron consists of cell body (cyton), dendrites and axon. Myelinated axons have Schwann cells forming myelin sheath with Nodes of Ranvier. Transmission of nerve impulse is faster in myelinated fibres.
Resting potential is –70 mV (more negative inside). Action potential is generated when membrane depolarises to threshold. Impulse travels as action potential due to Na⁺ influx and K⁺ efflux.
Junction between two neurons. Types: Electrical and Chemical. Chemical synapse releases neurotransmitters (acetylcholine, dopamine, etc.) into synaptic cleft.
Brain: Forebrain (cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus), Midbrain, Hindbrain (pons, cerebellum, medulla oblongata). Spinal cord conducts impulses and controls reflex actions.
Rapid, involuntary, automatic response to a stimulus. Reflex arc: Receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Effector.
Organs of sight (eye), hearing (ear), taste, smell and touch. Human eye has retina with rods (dim light) and cones (colour vision).
Q1. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is:
Q2. Resting membrane potential of a neuron is:
Q3. The gap between two neurons is called:
Q4. The neurotransmitter released at neuromuscular junction is:
Q5. The part of brain responsible for balance and posture is:
Q6. Reflex action is controlled by:
Q7. Nodes of Ranvier are found in:
Q8. The centre for hunger and thirst is located in:
Q9. Saltatory conduction occurs in:
Q10. Rods in the retina are responsible for:
Q11. The outermost covering of brain is:
Q12. The neurotransmitter that inhibits nerve impulse is:
Q13. The part of brain involved in thermoregulation is:
Q14. Myelin sheath is formed by:
Q15. The shortest phase of action potential is:
Q16. Which part of the brain is called the “thinking centre”?
Q17. The blind spot in the eye is due to:
Q18. The junction between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released is called:
Q19. Which of the following is not a part of hindbrain?
Q20. The electrical potential difference across the resting membrane is maintained by:
Chemical coordination is provided by the endocrine system through hormones. Hormones are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands directly into the blood.
Endocrine glands are ductless. Major glands: Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Pineal, Thyroid, Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal, Pancreas, Testis and Ovary.
Hypothalamus produces releasing and inhibiting hormones. Pituitary (master gland) has anterior, intermediate and posterior lobes. Anterior pituitary secretes GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH. Posterior releases oxytocin and vasopressin.
Secretes thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). Regulates BMR. Deficiency causes goitre, cretinism, myxoedema. Hyperthyroidism causes exophthalmic goitre.
Parathyroid secretes parathormone (regulates Ca²⁺). Adrenal cortex: cortisol, aldosterone; medulla: adrenaline and noradrenaline (emergency hormones).
Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans): Insulin (lowers blood glucose) and glucagon (raises blood glucose). Gonads: Testis (testosterone), Ovary (estrogen and progesterone).
Steroid hormones enter cell and act on gene expression. Protein/peptide hormones bind to membrane receptors and use second messengers (cAMP, IP3, Ca²⁺).
Diabetes mellitus, Acromegaly, Cretinism, Addison’s disease, Cushing’s syndrome, Grave’s disease.
Q1. The master endocrine gland is:
Q2. Insulin is secreted by:
Q3. The hormone that regulates BMR is:
Q4. Emergency hormone is:
Q5. The hormone that lowers blood glucose level is:
Q6. Goitre is caused due to deficiency of:
Q7. The hormone responsible for milk ejection is:
Q8. Second messenger in hormone action is:
Q9. Addison’s disease is due to hyposecretion of:
Q10. The gland that secretes melatonin is:
Q11. Parathormone regulates:
Q12. Acromegaly is caused by hypersecretion of:
Q13. The hormone that stimulates ovulation is:
Q14. Cretinism is caused by hyposecretion of:
Q15. The gland called “4S gland” is:
Q16. Which hormone increases blood calcium level?
Q17. Diabetes insipidus is caused by deficiency of:
Q18. The hormone that maintains pregnancy is:
Q19. Cushing’s syndrome is due to hypersecretion of:
Q20. Steroid hormones act by:
Human reproduction is sexual and involves formation of gametes (spermatogenesis and oogenesis), fertilisation, implantation, gestation and parturition.
Includes scrotum, testes, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral glands and penis. Testes produce sperms and testosterone.
Includes ovaries, oviducts (fallopian tubes), uterus, cervix, vagina and mammary glands. Ovaries produce ova and hormones (estrogen, progesterone).
Spermatogenesis in males produces 4 sperms per meiosis. Oogenesis in females produces 1 ovum and polar bodies. Sperms are motile; ovum is non-motile.
28-day cycle. Phases: Menstrual, Follicular (proliferative), Ovulatory, Luteal (secretory). Controlled by FSH, LH, estrogen and progesterone.
Fertilisation occurs in ampullary region of fallopian tube. Zygote undergoes cleavage and forms blastocyst which implants in uterus.
Gestation period is 9 months (280 days). Placenta provides nourishment and acts as endocrine gland (hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone).
Parturition is the process of childbirth triggered by oxytocin. Lactation is stimulated by prolactin. Colostrum is nutrient-rich first milk.
Q1. The site of fertilisation in humans is:
Q2. The hormone responsible for ovulation is:
Q3. The number of sperms produced from one spermatogonium is:
Q4. The hormone that maintains pregnancy is:
Q5. The average gestation period in humans is:
Q6. The first milk secreted after child birth is called:
Q7. Spermatogenesis occurs in:
Q8. Corpus luteum secretes:
Q9. The number of polar bodies formed in oogenesis is:
Q10. Implantation of blastocyst occurs in:
Q11. The hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis is:
Q12. Graafian follicle is associated with:
Q13. The middle piece of sperm contains:
Q14. Menstrual cycle is regulated by:
Q15. The zygote undergoes cleavage to form:
Q16. The hormone detected in pregnancy test is:
Q17. Sertoli cells are found in:
Q18. Parturition is triggered by:
Q19. The acrosome of sperm contains:
Q20. The hormone that initiates labour and milk ejection is:
Biotechnology is the use of living organisms or their components to produce useful products. It includes genetic engineering, recombinant DNA technology, and applications in medicine, agriculture and industry.
Recombinant DNA technology involves restriction enzymes, vectors (plasmids, bacteriophages), ligases, selectable markers and host cells (E. coli, Agrobacterium).
Restriction endonucleases (molecular scissors), DNA ligase (molecular glue), vectors, host cells, selectable markers and reporter genes.
Isolation of genetic material, cutting of DNA, amplification by PCR, ligation, insertion into host, selection of recombinants, and expression of foreign gene.
Insulin production, vaccines (hepatitis B), gene therapy, monoclonal antibodies, diagnostic kits (ELISA, PCR for diseases).
Bt cotton, Bt brinjal, Golden rice (vitamin A), Flavr Savr tomato. Advantages: pest resistance, higher yield, nutritional enhancement. Concerns: biosafety and ethical issues.
Bioremediation, biofuel production, molecular diagnostics, forensic science (DNA fingerprinting), and industrial enzymes.
GEAC regulates GM crops in India. Issues include patenting of life forms, biopiracy, and potential environmental hazards.
Q1. The technique used to amplify DNA segments is:
Q2. Restriction enzymes are also known as:
Q3. Bt cotton is resistant to:
Q4. Golden rice is genetically modified for:
Q5. Insulin is commercially produced using:
Q6. Ti plasmid is used as a vector for:
Q7. The first transgenic plant was:
Q8. ELISA is a technique used for:
Q9. The first recombinant hormone produced was:
Q10. GEAC stands for:
Q11. Plasmids are commonly used as:
Q12. Flavr Savr tomato was modified for:
Q13. PCR was developed by:
Q14. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:
Q15. The first GM crop approved in India was:
Q16. Selectable marker in recombinant DNA technology is used for:
Q17. Bioremediation involves use of:
Q18. DNA fingerprinting was developed by:
Q19. The vector used in human gene therapy is often:
Q20. GEAC is responsible for:
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